I was looking over some properties of modular arithmetic and noticed the following one:
If $a \equiv a'$ (mod $n$) and $b \equiv b'$ (mod $n$), then $ab \equiv a'b'$ (mod n)
Now this is ok and I understand the proofs that prove that property, but I have also noticed that reducing only one variable modulo $n$ the congruence will also be satisfied. Namely:
$ab \equiv ab'$ (mod $n$)
Can anyone tell me why this also works? I am not very good with proofs, but I think it is just a corollary of the first property.