Since $\mathbb{F}_9$ is a field, its units $\mathbb{F}_{9}^* = (1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8)$ should form a multiplicative group. However in this group $3 \times 3 = 0 \notin \mathbb{F}_{9}^*$. I'm trying to understand how this is possible. Don't rush on me since I'm new to the literature.
-
1$\mathbf F_9$ is not the residue class ring $\mathbf Z/9\mathbf Z$ \ which can't be a field since $9$ is not a prime number. – Bernard Jan 01 '19 at 12:24
2 Answers
The error is that $\Bbb{F}_9$ is not $\Bbb{Z}/9$. For any field $K$ we have that $K^{\times}$ is a multiplicative group because $K$ is a field. But $\Bbb{Z}/9$ is not a field, as $3\cdot 3=0$ and $3\neq 0$.
Reference: This duplicate.

- 130,978
-
-
Which group? We have three groups, $(K,+)$, $(K^{\times},\cdot)$ and $\Bbb{Z}/9$. – Dietrich Burde Jan 01 '19 at 10:49
-
-
1
$\Bbb F_9$ is a quotient ring of the polynomial ring $\Bbb F_3[X]$. As such, the elements of $\Bbb F_9$ are written as $a+bX +(f)$ where $a,b\in\Bbb F_3$ and $f$ is an irreducible quadratic polynomial over $\Bbb F_3$. Usually we shorten this to $a+bx$, where $x$ is thought of one of the two roots of $f$.
Addition is done the regular way, and multiplication is done as with regular polynomials, then reduced through $f$ to be on the above form again. Exactly which $f$ you choose is up to you, but be consistent.
The elements of $\Bbb F_9^\times$ are $$1,2,\\x,x+1,x+2,\\2x,2x+1,2x+2$$ An example of multiplication, using $f(X)=X^2-2$, meaning $x^2-2=0$, or $x^2=2$: $$ (x+2)(2x+2)=2x^2+6x+4\\ =2x^2+1=2\cdot2+1=2 $$

- 199,419
-
-
1
-
1@greedoid This is Theory of Fields extensions, which many times goes together (in fact, a little before) Galois Theory in middle undergraduate studies in mathematics. Are you there? Because otherwise simply telling you that $;x;$ is a root of an irreducible quadratic in $;\Bbb F_3[X];$ won't likely help . – DonAntonio Jan 01 '19 at 10:56
-
1@Arthur Using the same symbol $;x;$ for the unknown of the polynomial ring $;\Bbb F_3[x];$ and the elements in $;\Bbb F_9;$ is not a good idea, imo. – DonAntonio Jan 01 '19 at 10:57
-
1@DonAntonio It's a common abuse of notation to use the same symbols for elements of a ring and the corresponding elements in some quotient ring. Just see how easily we use $2$ when talking about elements of $\Bbb F_3=\Bbb Z/(3)$. – Arthur Jan 01 '19 at 11:01
-
1@Arthur I know that...but even in that case it is usual to point out that those are representatives of polynomials (and that's why that $;x;$ there usually) in the usual representation as quotient: $;\Bbb F_9\cong \Bbb F_3[x]/\langle x^2+1\rangle;$ (or modulo any other irreducible quadratic modulo $;3;$, of course). As it is, it could be highly confusing for greedoid and/or for the OP, I believe. – DonAntonio Jan 01 '19 at 11:05
-
1
-