I was solving the integral $$I_n=\int_0^{\frac {\pi}{2}} \left(\frac {\sin ((2n+1)x)}{\sin x}\right)^2 dx$$
With $n\ge 0$ And $n\in \mathbb{N}$
On solving, I got $$I_n =\frac {(2n+1)\pi}{2}$$
But, due to curiosity, I started investigating the family of integrals as
$$I_n(\beta) =\int_0^{\frac {\pi}{2}} \left(\frac {\sin (2n+1)x}{\sin x}\right)^{\beta} dx$$
On trying various values of $\beta\gt 2$ and $\beta\in \mathbb{N}$, I conjectured that $$I_n(\beta) =c_{\beta} \frac{\pi}{2}$$ where $c_{\beta}$ denotes "Number of arrays of $\beta$ integers in $-n$ to $n$ with sum $0$"
But, on trying a lot, I couldn't prove this statement. Also, I suppose that the statement could be proved with help of Dirichlet kernel, but I couldn't get the way out through it.
Any help and hints to prove/disprove the conjecture are greatly appreciated.