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Following question: Why and how to see that a connected, smooth, projective curve $C$ (so a so a $1$-dimensional, proper $k$-scheme) is rational if it is unirational.

Remark: unirational means that there exist a dense morphism $\phi: \mathbb{P}^n \to C$

Especially that would mean that every unirational normal curve have a rational point.

Remark #2: This question arises from the answer given https://mathoverflow.net/questions/319483/extend-group-action-of-mathbba1-g-to-projective-line

but it seems to me that my question above about the step in the given answer would be too low for a further MO-thread.

  • Your mention a curve several times but also say "$2$-dimensional, proper $k$-scheme" in your post while clarifying your definition of a curve. Is this a typo? If not, could you clarify your meaning? – KReiser Dec 28 '18 at 23:41
  • of course a typo :) –  Dec 29 '18 at 03:05

1 Answers1

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This result is called Lüroth's theorem; see, e.g., this Math.SE question. For an elementary proof, you can look at Theorem 1.3 in this book by Ojanguren.

For more canonical references, you can look at Jacobson's Basic Algebra II, p. 522, or Hartshorne's Algebraic Geometry, Ex. IV.2.5.5.

Below is a version of Ojanguren's argument that I wrote down for a course taught by Mircea Mustaţă. See Lecture 1, Theorem 2.1 in his notes, or Theorem 1.6 in my LiveTeXed notes from the course.

Proof. We show that if $k \subseteq K \subseteq k(t)$ is a sequence of field extensions such that $\operatorname{trdeg}_k K = 1$ and $t$ is transcendental over $k$, then $K \simeq k(X)$ for a transcendental element $X$ over $k$. Since $\operatorname{trdeg}_k K = 1$, it is enough to find some $a \in K$ such that $K = k(a)$.

First, the second extension $K \subseteq k(t)$ must be algebraic, so $t$ is algebraic over $K$. Let $$ f(X) = X^n + a_1X^{n-1} + \cdots + a_n \in K[X] $$ be the minimal polynomial of $t$ over $K$. Since $t$ is transcendental over $k$, we cannot have all $a_i \in k$, and so there is some $i$ such that $a_i \in K \smallsetminus k$. We will show that in this case, $K = k(a_i)$. We know that the $a_i \in K \subseteq k(t)$, and so we may write $$ a_i = \frac{u(t)}{v(t)}, $$ where $u,v \in k[t]$ are relatively prime, and where at least one of them of positive degree by the assumption that $a_i \notin k$. Now consider the following polynomial: $$ F(X) = u(X) - a_iv(X) \in k(a_i)[X] \subseteq K[X]. $$ Since $F(t) = 0$, we have that $f(X) \mid F(X)$ in $K[X]$ by minimality of $f(X)$, and so \begin{equation} u(X) - a_iv(X) = f(X)g(X).\tag{1}\label{eq:0105star} \end{equation} where $g \in K[X]$. We then claim the following:

Claim. $g \in K$.

Showing the Claim would conclude the proof, for then we have a sequence of extensions $$ k \hookrightarrow k(a_i) \hookrightarrow K \hookrightarrow k(t) $$ where $t$ is the root of a degree $n$ polynomial in $k(a_i)[X]$, hence $[k(t) : K] \ge n = [k(t) : k(a_i)]$, which implies $K = k(a_i)$.

To prove the Claim, the first step is to get rid of all denominators: by multiplying \eqref{eq:0105star} by $v(t)$ and the product of all denominators in the coefficients of $f$ and $g$, we get a relation $$ c(t)\bigl(u(X)v(t) - v(X)u(t)\bigr) = f_1(t,X)g_1(t,X), $$ where $c(t) \in k[t]$ is nonzero and $f_1(t,X),g_1(t,X) \in k[t,X]$ are obtained from $f$ resp. $g$ by multiplication by an element in $k[t]$. Note that $k[t,X]$ is a UFD, hence every prime factor of $c(t)$ divides either $f_1(t,X)$ or $g_1(t,X)$. Thus, we can get rid of $c(t)$ by successively dividing by prime factors of $c(t)$ to get a relation \begin{equation} u(X)v(t) - v(X)u(t) = f_2(t,X)g_2(t,X),\tag{2}\label{eq:0105rel3} \end{equation} where now $f_2(t,X),g_2(t,X) \in k[t,X]$ are obtained from $f,g$ by multiplication by a nonzero element in $k(t)$. The trick is now to look at the degrees in $t$ on both sides. First, $$ \deg_t\bigl(u(X)v(t) - v(X)u(t)\bigr) \le \max\bigl\{\deg u(t),\deg v(t)\bigr\}. $$ Letting $f_2(t,X) = \gamma_0(t)X^n + \cdots + \gamma_n(t)$, we see that $$ \frac{\gamma_i(t)}{\gamma_0(t)} = a_i(t) = \frac{u(t)}{v(t)}, $$ where we recall that $u(t),v(t)$ were relatively prime. This implies that in fact, $$ \deg_t\bigl(f_2(t,X)\bigr) \ge \max\bigl\{\deg u(t),\deg v(t)\bigr\}. $$ By looking at degrees in $t$ on both sides of the relation \eqref{eq:0105rel3}, we have that $\deg_t(g_2(t,X)) = 0$, hence $g_2 \in k[X]$.

Now we show that $g_2 \in k$. For sake of contradiction, suppose that $g_2 \notin k$. Then, there is a root $\gamma \in \overline{k}$ such that $g_2(\gamma) = 0$, which implies that $u(\gamma)v(t) = v(\gamma)u(t)$ by \eqref{eq:0105rel3}. But since $u(t)$ and $v(t)$ are relatively prime, and are not both constants, we must have $u(\gamma) = 0 = v(\gamma)$. This contradicts that $u,v$ are relatively prime, and so $g_2 \in k$. Finally, since $g \in K[X]$ and $g = g_2 \cdot (\text{element of $k(t)$})$, we have that $g \in K$. $\blacksquare$

  • hi, thank you a lot for the detailed explanation. Essentially Lüroth theorem proves $\mathbb{P}^1 /G \cong \mathbb{P}^1$ taking into account famous category equivalence between the categories of smooth projective algebraic curves and function fields of trdeg $1$ showing that both have isomorphic function fields, right? the aspect that I unfortunately can't find in your answer ...please correct me if I have ovenseen this point ...is that the thread primary not refers to the statement from my previous MO question about $\mathbb{A}^1 /G \cong \mathbb{A}^1$ –  Dec 29 '18 at 03:54
  • but to two intermediate results occured in the answer concerning unirational curves in general. namely why normal unirational curve has a rational point (or the more stronger result that which appropriate extra conditions it is already ration. I'm not sure how this can be also answered with Lüroth. –  Dec 29 '18 at 03:54
  • @TimGrosskreutz I am a bit confused, since I thought you were asking about why unirational implies rational for curves in your original question, so that is the question that I answered. In any case, a unirational curve always has rational points: Suppose $f\colon \mathbf{P}^1 \dashrightarrow C$ is a dominant rational map to a complete curve. Since $\mathbf{P}^1$ is regular, $f$ is in fact a morphism. Now $\mathbf{P}^1$ has multiple $k$-rational points, and these map to $k$-rational points on $C$. – Takumi Murayama Dec 29 '18 at 06:52
  • @TimGrosskreutz I also notice you said "two intermediate results". Do you have other questions in addition to why unirational implies rational for curves, and why unirational curves have rational points? I apologize for missing them, if you have already mentioned them on this page! – Takumi Murayama Dec 29 '18 at 06:55
  • no sorry I have just overseen that Lüroth's statement for intermediate fields from wiki - namely that every intermedadiate extension between $K$ and $K(X)$ is generated by single element - has a geometric version: and this is exactly that unirational implies rational so what I was asking for. this I exactly what I meant by "intermediate result". –  Dec 29 '18 at 21:35
  • Two points stay unclear. You used in your last comments follwing argument: If we start with dominant rational $f\colon \mathbf{P}^1 \dashrightarrow C$. Why the fact that $\mathbf{P}^1$ is regular imply that $f$ is already a morphism; so everywhere defined? –  Dec 29 '18 at 23:27
  • And secondly I'm not sure if I have understood correctly that "unirational implies rational" is exactly the geometric version of Lüroth's classical formulation for intermediate fields. Let me summarize it: the existence of dominant rational morphism $f\colon \mathbf{P}^1 \dashrightarrow C$ gives corresponding field extension $K(C) \subset K(\mathbf{P}^1)= K(t)$ and algebraic Lüroth says just that $K(C)$ is also generated by a single element. –  Dec 29 '18 at 23:34
  • This imply that $K(C) =K(x)$ so $C$ is rational since it has a function field isomorphic to the projective line and this is exactly the Definition for rational curve. but here occure following problem: since $\mathbb{P}^1$ is regular $f$ is by your Argument above a morphism between smooth proj alg curves with isomorphic function fields. Does the category equivalence I mentioned above already imply that $C$ is already isomorphic to projective line? this conclusion seems to strong for me. –  Dec 29 '18 at 23:34
  • @TimGrosskreutz For the claim that a rational map from a regular curve to a projective variety can be extended to a morphism, see [Hartshorne, Prop. I.6.8]. The more general version for maps to complete schemes follows from the valuative criterion for properness; see [Görtz–Wedhorn, Thm. 12.60]. For your second question, yes, any regular complete curve birational to $\mathbf{P}^1$ is in fact isomorphic to $\mathbf{P}^1$. This follows from [Hartshorne, Cor. I.6.12], for example. – Takumi Murayama Dec 30 '18 at 04:30