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Let $f=f(t),g=g(t) \in \mathbb{C}[t]$ be two separable polynomials of degrees $\deg(f)=n \geq 2$ and $\deg(g)=m \geq 2$, namely, $f$ has $n$ distinct roots and $g$ has $m$ distinct roots.

Denote $d=d(t)=\gcd(f(t),g(t))$, and assume that $\deg(d)=l \geq 1$.

Assume that $d(t)=(t-\gamma_1)\cdots(t-\gamma_l)$, so we can write $f(t)=(t-\gamma_1)\cdots(t-\gamma_l)(t-\alpha_1)\cdots(t-\alpha_{n-l})$ and $g(t)=(t-\gamma_1)\cdots(t-\gamma_l)(t-\beta_1)\cdots(t-\beta_{m-l})$, where $\{\alpha_1,\ldots,\alpha_{n-l},\beta_1,\ldots,\beta_{m-l},\gamma_1,\cdots,\gamma_l\}$ are distinct.

Further assume that $\mathbb{C}(f,g)=\mathbb{C}(t)$.

Are there nice (necessary and sufficient) conditions for $\mathbb{C}[f,g]=\mathbb[t]$?

Examples:

(1) $f=t(t-1)(t+1)=t(t^2-1)=t^3-t, g=t(t-i)(t+i)=t(t^2+1)=t^3+t$ We have $f-g=t^3-t-(t^3+t)=-2t$, so $\mathbb{C}[f,g]=\mathbb{C}[t]$.

(2) $f=(t+1)t(t-1), g=(t+1)(t+2)(t-2)$. By this we get that $\mathbb{C}(f,g)=\mathbb{C}(t)$ (since $\deg(d)=1$). Here $\mathbb{C}[f,g]\neq \mathbb{C}[t]$, since the D-resultant of $f$ and $g$ is $s(s+1)$, and a necessary and sufficient condition for $\mathbb{C}[f,g]=\mathbb{C}[t]$ is that the D-resultant of $f$ and $g$ is a non-zero scalar (namely, $\in \mathbb{C}^{\times}$), see Theorem 2.1.

Several ideas:

  • One plausible answer is to adjust that Theorem 2.1 to our special case; however, computing the D-resultant is very complicated for higher degrees of $f$ and $g$, or maybe I am missing something and the D-resultant is nicer that I thought?

  • What about sub-resultants? (I think I can obtain a nice condition involving sub-resultants) but again in higher degrees the computations are complicated.

  • What about SAGBI bases; it seems that $\{f,g\}$ is not a SAGBI basis, but does this tell something intersting?

  • By Abhyankar-Moh-Suzuki theroem, $m$ must divide $n$ or vice versa.

  • A related question is this question, which asks: For which $f,g \in k[t]$, $k[f,g]$ is integrally closed in its field of fractions $k(f,g)=k(t)$? Notice that, in our case, if $\mathbb{C}[f,g]$ is integrally closed in $\mathbb{C}(f,g)$, then, since here $\mathbb{C}(f,g)=\mathbb{C}(t)$, we obtain that $t$, which is obviously integral over $\mathbb{C}[f,g]$, already belongs to $\mathbb{C}[f,g]$, hence $\mathbb{C}[f,g]=\mathbb{C}[t]$.

  • See also this question.

Special cases are also wellcome.

Plausible special cases:

(1) $\deg(d)=1$: Notice that in each of the two examples $\deg(d)=1$, but this does not help in determinig if $\mathbb{C}[f,g]=\mathbb{C}[t]$ or not, because in the first example we have $\mathbb{C}[f,g]=\mathbb{C}[t]$, while in the second example we have $\mathbb{C}[f,g]\neq\mathbb{C}[t]$. Perhaps I am missing a nice criterion that distinguishes between those two examples?

(2) Special forms of $f$ and/or $g$, for example $f(t)=t^n+at^{\tilde{n}}+b$ and $g(t)=t^m+ct^{\tilde{m}}+d$.

Any hints and comments are welcome!


As promised in the comments, I now prove the following claim:

Claim: Let $k$ be an algebraically closed field of characteristic zero and let $f=f(t),g=g(t) \in k[t]$ be such that $f'$ and $g'$ are not simultaneously zero (this, in some cases, implies that $k(f,g)=k(t)$). Then the following two conditions are equivalent:

(i) $k[f,g]=k[t]$.

(ii) For all $\lambda,\mu \in k$, we have $\deg(\gcd(f-\lambda,g-\mu)) \leq 1$.

Proof:

Lemma (it is necessary to assume that $k$ is algebraically closed): $k[f,g]=k[t]$ if and only if $f'$ and $g'$ are not simultaneously zero and $\psi: t \mapsto (f(t),g(t))$ is injective.

(i) implies (ii):

Denote $F_{\lambda}=F_{\lambda}(t):=f(t)-\lambda$ and $G_{\mu}=G_{\mu}(t):=g(t)-\mu$.

From $k[f,g]=k[t]$ follows that, for all $\lambda,\mu \in k$, $k[F_\lambda,G_\mu]=k[f-\lambda,g-\mu]=k[t]$

By the lemma we get that, for all $\lambda,\mu \in k$, $\psi_{\lambda,\mu}: t \mapsto (F_\lambda(t),G_\mu(t))$ is injective.

Assume that there exist $\lambda_0,\mu_0 \in k$ such that $\deg(\gcd(F_{\lambda_0},G_{\mu_0}))=\deg(\gcd(f-\lambda_0,g-\mu_0)) \geq 2$.

Then there exist $a,b \in k$, with $a \neq b$ (otherwise, $a$ is a common root of $f'$ and $g'$ contrary to our assumption that they are not simultaneously zero) , such that $(t-a)(t-b)$ divides both $F_{\lambda_0}$ and $G_{\mu_0}$.

Then $F_{\lambda_0}(a)=F_{\lambda_0}(b)=G_{\mu_0}(a)=G_{\mu_0}(b)=0$, so

$\psi_{\lambda_0,\mu_0}(a)=(F_{\lambda_0}(a),G_{\mu_0}(a))=(F_{\lambda_0}(b),G_{\mu_0}(b))=\psi_{\lambda_0,\mu_0}(b)$,

which contradicts the injectivity of $\psi_{\lambda_0,\mu_0}: t \mapsto (F_{\lambda_0}(t),G_{\mu_0}(t))$.

Therefore, there exist no such $\lambda_0,\mu_0 \in k$.

(ii) implies (i):

If $k[f,g] \neq k[t]$, then by the lemma we get that $\psi: t \mapsto (f(t),g(t))$ is not injective, namely, there exist $a,b$, $a \neq b$, such that $\psi(a)=\psi(b)$, so $f(a)=f(b):=\lambda_0$ and $g(a)=g(b):=\mu_0$

Take $F_{\lambda_0}:=f-\lambda_0$ and $G_{\mu_0}:=g-\mu_0$.

Then, $F_{\lambda_0}(a)=f(a)-\lambda_0=0$ and $F_{\lambda_0}(b)=f(b)-\lambda_0=0$, so $(t-a)(t-b)$ divides $F_{\lambda_0}$, and $G_{\mu_0}(a)=g(a)-\mu_0=0$ and $G_{\mu_0}(b)=g(b)-\mu_0=0$, so $(t-a)(t-b)$ divides $G_{\mu_0}$.

We obtained that $(t-a)(t-b)$ divides $\gcd(F_{\lambda_0},G_{\mu_0})=\gcd(f-\lambda_0,g-\mu_0)$, so $\deg(\gcd(f-\lambda_0,g-\lambda_0)) \geq 2$, a contradiction.

user237522
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    An obvious necessary (but not sufficient) condition is $l=1$. If $l>1$, $\mathbb{C}[f,g]\neq\mathbb{C}[t]$. – Mohan Dec 27 '18 at 19:10
  • Thanks for the comment. Yes, I have seen this, since, if $l \geq 2$, for example, if $(t-a)(t-b)$ divides $d$, then $f(a)=f(b)=g(a)=g(b)=0$, so $\psi: t \mapsto (f(t),g(t))$ is not injective, since $\psi(a)=\psi(b)=(0,0)$. – user237522 Dec 27 '18 at 22:45
  • Actually, a few months ago I have seen, based on one of your answers to one of my questions, that, if I am not wrong (I will add a proof later): Given arbitrary $f,g \in k[t]$ with $(f'(t),g'(t)) \neq (0,0)$ for all $t \in k$, we have: $\psi: t \mapsto (f(t),g(t))$ is injective (so $k[f,g]=k[t]$) if and only if for all $\lambda,\mu \in k$, $\deg(\gcd(f(t)-\lambda,g(t)-\mu))=1$ ($k$ is a field of characteristic zero). – user237522 Dec 27 '18 at 22:56
  • (The last line should say: $\deg(\gcd(f(t)-\lambda,g(t)-\mu)) \leq 1$). – user237522 Dec 27 '18 at 23:26
  • A better way of saying is that $\mathbb{C}[f,g]=\mathbb{C}[t]$ if and only if for any $a\in\mathbb{C}$, gcd of $f(t)-f(a), g(t)-g(a)$ is $t-a$. – Mohan Dec 28 '18 at 01:09
  • Thank you. Nice observation! – user237522 Dec 28 '18 at 01:40
  • It seems that the 'better way claim' is equivalent to Theorem 2.1 of the following paper https://www.researchgate.net/publication/241710826_The_D-resultant_singularities_and_the_degree_of_unfaithfulness – user237522 Dec 29 '18 at 17:36

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