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Someone asked a variant of this question recently (Equivalencity of $xI-A$). I ran across a suspiciously similar question today!

Let $A$ and $B$ be $n \times n$ matrices over $\mathbb{Q}$.

  1. If $\det(xI-A) = \det(xI-B)$, can you say $xI-A$ and $xI-B$ are equivalent over $\mathbb{Q}[x]$? This is false and is answered here (Does equality of characteristic polynomials guarantee equivalence of matrices?)

  2. If $xI-A$ and $xI-B$ are equivalent over $\mathbb{Q}[x]$, are $A$ and $B$ similar?

My suspicion is that (2.) is also false. If it were true, then we would have matrices $P,Q$ over $\mathbb{Q}[x]$ such that $xI-A = P(xI-B)Q$. And I am not sure how to reduce matrices over $\mathbb{Q}[x]$ to matrices over $\mathbb{Q}$ to get the required similarity relation. Although, this seems to be a slightly stronger statement than $A$ and $B$ have the same characteristic polynomial.

Any help appreciated.

Pentaki
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  • is true. $A-\lambda$ and $B-\lambda$ being $\lambda$-equivalent is the necessary and sufficient condition for $A,B$ being similar.
  • – Vim Dec 16 '18 at 03:50