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I can't seem to figure out this problem. I can factor to reduce the number, but this is too time consuming. Isn't FLT suppose to help here?

Can someone provide clarification please?

FLT problem

Key Flex
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2 Answers2

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Since $15^{48}$ is nearly $15^{52}$, we can write

\begin{align} 15^{48} &\equiv 15^{52} \cdot 15^{-4} &\pmod{53}\\ &= 15^{-4}, &\pmod{53} \end{align} using Fermat's little theorem.

With the extended Euclidean algorithm, one can compute $15^{-1} = -7$, and so \begin{align} 15^{-4} &\equiv (-7)^4 &\pmod{53}\\ &\equiv 49^2 &\pmod{53}\\ &\equiv (-4)^2 &\pmod{53}\\ &\equiv 16. &\pmod{53} \end{align}

Zach Langley
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$15^{48}*15^{4} = 15^{52}\equiv 1\pmod {53}$ by FLT.

As $53$ is prime all terms have a multiplicative inverses and $\mathbb Z/53\mathbb Z$ is a field. So if we can know what $15^{-1}\pmod {53}$ is (i.e. then $x$ so that $15\equiv 1 \pmod{53}$) is then $15^{48} \equiv (15^{-1})^4=(15^4)^{-1} \pmod {53}$.

$15^4 \equiv 225^2 \equiv 13^2 \equiv 169\equiv 10\pmod {53}$.

So what is $10^{-1}\pmod{53}$ so that $10^{-1}*10\equiv 1 \pmod{53}$?

Well. $53*3= 159$ so $10*16 = 159 + 1\equiv 1\pmod{53}$.

So $10^{-1}\equiv 16\pmod {53}$ and $15^{48} \equiv 16\pmod {53}$.

And we can verify this as $16*15^4 \equiv 30^4 =810000\equiv 1 \equiv 15^{52}$ and as $\gcd(15, 53)=1$ then means $16\equiv 15^{48}\pmod {53}$.

fleablood
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