Show that $$\lim_{n\to\infty}n\Bigg\{\dfrac{1}{(n+1)^2}+\dfrac{1}{(n+2)^2}+\dfrac{1}{(n+3)^2}+\cdots+\dfrac{1}{(2n)^2}\Bigg\}=\dfrac{1}{2}.$$
Proof: We can rewrite $$\lim_{n\to\infty}n\Bigg\{\dfrac{1}{(n+1)^2}+\dfrac{1}{(n+2)^2}+\dfrac{1}{(n+3)^2}+\cdots+\dfrac{1}{(2n)^2}\Bigg\}=\lim_{n\to\infty}n\Bigg\{\sum_{k=1}^n\dfrac{1}{(n+k)^2}\Bigg\}$$ Which looks astoundingly similar to the form in Corollary 8.3, where $\dfrac{b-a}{n} = n\implies b-a = 2n$.
Corollary 8.3: Let $f$ be a continuous function on an interval [a,b]. Then $$\int_a^bf(x)dx=\lim_{n\to\infty}\dfrac{b-a}{n}\sum_{k=0}^{n-1}f\Bigg(a+\dfrac{k}{n}(b-a)\Bigg)$$
That would mean the term in Corollary 8.3 would morph into $$f\left(a+\dfrac{k}{n}(b-a)\right)=f\left((b-2n)+\dfrac{k}{n}(2n)\right)=f(b-2n+2k)$$ We need $f(b-2n+2k)$ to look like $\dfrac{1}{(n+k)^2}$. This would imply that $f$ is
... but then I get stuck. I am unsure how to find $f$ or even if I need to find $f$.