Let $A, B, X, Y$ be topological spaces.
Given two functions $f : A \to B$ and $g : X \to Y $, let $f \times g : A × X \to B \times Y$, $ (f \times g)(a, x) = (f(a), g(x))$.
can you help me to show that if f and g is cont. then fxg is too
and if the sets A,B is non-empty, then it holds the other way around too.
I'm pretty stuck.. can you please help me?
To show the statement, I will use Theorem 4.1. If I can show that $f\times g(\overline{S\times T})\subseteq \overline{f\times g(S\times T)}$ for a subset $S\times T\subseteq A\times X$.
Take a $(b,y)\in f\times g(\overline{S\times T})$. Then there exists a $s\in\overline S$ and $t\in\overline T$ such that $f(s)=b$ and $g(t)=y$. We know that both $f$ and $g$ is continuous, so from 4.1 we get $f(s)\in\overline B$ and $g(t)\in\overline Y$, and then $(b,y)\in \overline{f\times g (S\times T)}$. And from 4.1 we get that $f\times g$ is continuous.
@username
so that I get the notification. For any topological space you have $\overline X=X$ (and $\overline\emptyset=\emptyset$. So this is true also for topological space $B$ and $Y$. (Maybe you wanted to use $f(S)$ instead of $B$ and $g(T)$ instead of $Y$?) – Martin Sleziak Dec 03 '18 at 16:50