I want to prove: $\exp(x+y) = \exp(x)\cdot \exp(y)$ using the definition: $\exp(x) = \lim_{n\to\infty} (1+\frac{x}{n})^n$
I am having trouble completing the proof, but here is my idea so far: $$\lim_{n\to\infty} \left(1+\frac{x+y}{n}\right)^n = \lim_{n\to\infty} \left(1+\frac{x}{n}\right)^n \cdot \lim_{n\to\infty} \left(1+\frac{y}{n}\right)^n = \lim_{n\to\infty} \left(\left(1+\frac{x}{n}\right)^n \cdot \left(1+\frac{y}{n}\right)^n \right) $$
Now I rearrange the last expression: $$\lim_{n\to\infty} \left(1+\frac{x+y+\frac{xy}{n}}{n}\right)^n $$
From here my idea is to somehow show that this limit is equal to $$\lim_{n\to\infty} \left(1+\frac{x+y}{n}\right)^n = \exp(x+y)$$ using the Squeeze Theorem and perhaps Bernoulli's Inequality, but I am at a loss as to how exactly to do it. I'd appreciate your help.