i have $E[B]= \int_{\mathbb R+} P(Y-X>t)dt$
and i want to show this relation :
$\int_{\mathbb R+} P(Y-X>t)dt$=$\int_{\mathbb R}P(X < y, Y >y)dy$
I first began showing that for t ≥ 0, $ P(Y − X>t) = \int_{\mathbb R^2} 1_{y>x+t}f_{X|Y=y} (x) f_y(y) dxdy$
But i don't know how to continue