I have found this question answered before but I am stuck going from
$$m^{\phi(n)}+n^{\phi(m)}\equiv1 \pmod{n}\\ n^{\phi(m)}+m^{\phi(n)}\equiv1 \pmod{m}$$ to $$m^{\phi(n)}+n^{\phi(m)}\equiv1 \pmod{mn}$$
Why can we combine $\pmod{m}$ and $(\pmod{n}$ into $\pmod{mn}$? I know it's overall because $\gcd(m,n)=1$, but I don't understand why it is so. Is there a theorem for this specifically? I found this, but this seems to not multiply what is in the modulus together.
Here is the beginning of my proof:
$\gcd(m,n)=1\implies m^{\phi(n)}\equiv1 \pmod{n}$ and $n^{\phi(m)}\equiv1 \pmod{m}$ by Euler's theorem.
$ m^{\phi(n)}\equiv1 \pmod{n} \equiv m^{\phi(n)}+n^{\phi(m)}\equiv1+n^{\phi(m)}\pmod{n}$ and $n^{\phi(m)}\equiv1 \pmod{m}\equiv n^{\phi(m)}+m^{\phi(n)}\equiv1+m^{\phi(n)} \pmod{m}$.
But $m^{\phi(n)} \equiv 0\pmod{m}$ and $n^{\phi(m)}\equiv 0\pmod{n}$.
So we have $m^{\phi(n)}+n^{\phi(m)}\equiv1\pmod{n}$ and $n^{\phi(m)}+m^{\phi(n)}\equiv1 \pmod{m}$...
... which implies $m^{\phi(n)}+n^{\phi(m)}\equiv1\pmod{mn}$.