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How would one approach finding this limit without using Taylor's series? $$\lim_{x \to 0} \frac{\tan{(\sin{(x)}})}{\sin{(\tan{(x)}})}$$

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    Just using $\sin x \approx x \approx \tan x$ is enough. That is the first term of a Taylor series for each. – Ross Millikan Nov 12 '18 at 22:06
  • @RossMillikan Without Taylor's is requested. Of course, I agree, it can be equivalently derived from the standard limit. – user Nov 12 '18 at 22:09
  • @gimusi: I admitted that, but $\sin x \approx x$ is a standard limit and we don't always call that the first term of the Taylor series (though it is). – Ross Millikan Nov 12 '18 at 22:17
  • @RossMillikan Yes of course, the fact is that you were referring indeed to Taylor in your first comment. I thought you didn't see that limitation for that. – user Nov 12 '18 at 22:19

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HINT

By standard limits use that

$$\frac{\tan{(\sin{x}})}{\sin{(\tan{x}})} =\frac{\tan{(\sin{x}})}{\sin x} \frac{\tan x}{\sin{(\tan{x}})} \frac{\sin x}{x}\frac{x}{\tan x}$$

user
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