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If a and b are co-primes and $n$ is a prime then prove that $\frac{a^n + b^n}{a+b}$ and $(a+b)$ have no common factors unless $(a+b)$ is a multiple of $n.$

I am unable to proceed, please help.

amWhy
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Anonymous
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1 Answers1

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For $n=2$, the problem is unclear because $\frac{a^2 + b^2}{a+b}$ is not always an integer.

Suppose that $n$ is an odd prime and that $\frac{a^n + b^n}{a+b}$ and $(a+b)$ have some prime common factor $p$.

$$p \mid a+b\tag{1}$$ $$p \mid {a^n+b^n \over a + b}\tag{2}$$

Note that:

$$p \nmid a,\quad p\nmid b\tag{3}$$

(If $p \mid a$ and $p \mid a+b$ then $p\mid b$ and $a$ and $b$ would not be coprime)

For $n$ being an odd prime, you can write (3) as:

$$p|\sum_{i=0}^{n-1}(-1)^i a^{n-1-i}b^i\tag{4}$$

From (2) we have:

$$a+b=kp\implies a=kp-b\tag{5}$$

...for some $k\in N$

Replace (5) into (4):

$$p|\sum_{i=0}^{n-1}(-1)^i(kp-b)^ib^{n-1-i}\tag{6}$$

Because $p\mid kp$, (6) is equivalent to:

$$p|\sum_{i=0}^{n-1}(-1)^i(-b)^ib^{n-1-i}$$

$$p|\sum_{i=0}^{n-1}(-1)^{2i}b^{n-1}$$

$$p|\sum_{i=0}^{n-1}b^{n-1}$$

$$p|nb^{n-1}$$

But $p\nmid b$ and $p\nmid b^{n-1}$so it must be that $p|n$. But $n$ is a prime so this actually means that $n=p$ and $n\mid(a+b)$.

Saša
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  • Oldboy, can you please explain the equivalence between (6) and the succeeding statement where you have omitted kp and just kept -b. – Anonymous Nov 08 '18 at 10:55
  • @UtkarshJha You can expand $(kp-b)^i$ in the following way:

    $$(kp)^0(-b)^i + {i \choose 1}(kp)^1(-b)^{i-1}+ {i \choose 2}(kp)^2(-b)^{i-2}+...+{i \choose i}(kp)^i(-b)^0$$

    Then multiply each item with $b^{n-i-1}$. All items except the first one are divisible by $p$ and they won't impact the divisibility of (6) as a whole. You can safeuly ignore them.

    – Saša Nov 08 '18 at 11:13
  • Thanks for the explanation ! – Anonymous Nov 08 '18 at 11:27
  • @UtkarshJha If you are ok with the answer it's polite to upvote and/or accept it at some time. – Saša Nov 08 '18 at 12:02