1

Suppose $T$ is a bounded operator from $L^2$ to $L^2$ that commutes with pointwise multiplication by any continuous function $g$. That is, if $f\in L^2$,

$$gT(f)=T(gf).$$

Why must $T$ necessarily be multiplication by a $L^\infty$ function?

I am asking this question in order to understand the answer of Matthew Daws here.

Potato
  • 40,171

1 Answers1

4

I assume that underlying measure space is $\sigma$-finite

If underlying measure space is finite just set $f=1$ and recall that all continuous functions (denoted by $g$) are dense in $L_2$.

To show that $T(1)$ is in $L_\infty$ you need to note that $$ \Vert g T(1)\Vert_2=\Vert T(g)\Vert_2\leq \Vert T\Vert\Vert g\Vert_2 $$ and use the following fact: If $\Vert gh\Vert_2\leq C\Vert g\Vert_2$ for all $g\in L_2$, then $h\in L_\infty$ and what is more $\Vert h\Vert_\infty\leq C$.

Otherwise decompose it onto disjoint union of finite measurable subsets and reduce your problem to the previous case.

Norbert
  • 56,803