I want to show that the function $f : [0, 1] \rightarrow \mathbb{R}$ defined by
$$f(x) \equiv \begin{cases} x & \text { if } x \in [0, 1] \text { is rational } \\ -x & \text{ if } x \in [0, 1] \text{ is not rational } \end{cases} $$
is not Riemann integrable. Here's my attempt:
Attempt:
Let $\{P_{n}\}$ be a sequence of partitions of $[0, 1]$ each of size $1/n$. By the density of $\mathbb{Q}$ and $\mathbb{R} - \mathbb{Q}$, it follows that
$$ \lim_{n\to\infty} U(f, P_{n}) = \lim_{n\to\infty} \left(\frac{1}{n}\right) \sum_{i = 1}^{n} x_{i} \\ = \lim_{n\to\infty}\left(\frac{1}{n}\right)\sum_{i=1}^{n} \frac{i}{n} \\ = \lim_{n\to\infty} \left(\frac{1}{n^2}\right)\left(n(n+1)/2\right) \\ = 1/2, $$
and
$$\lim_{n\to\infty} L(f, P_{n}) = \lim_{n\to\infty} \frac{1}{n} \sum_{i = 1}^{n} (-x_{i}) = - \lim_{n\to\infty} U(f, P_{n}) = -1/2.$$
So, the two limits are not equal, meaning that it is not integrable. Is my proof sufficient, or do I also need to show that there are no Archimedean sequences of $[0, 1]$ for $f$? If so, how would I go about doing that?