While browsing similar questions on this site I came up with the following integral because I thought I could evaluate it. $$I=\int_{-\infty}^{\infty}\frac{x\arctan x\ \log(1+x^2)}{1+x^2}dx$$ I've been able to simplify it a bit. We first notice that $$I=\int_0^{\infty}\frac{\arctan x\ \log(1+x^2)}{1+x^2}2xdx$$ The substitution $u=x^2+1$ gives $$I=\int_1^{\infty}\arctan\sqrt{u-1}\ \log u\ \frac{du}u$$ Then $w=\log u$ gives $$I=\int_{0}^{\infty}\arctan\sqrt{e^w-1}\ dw$$ Which I do not know how to proceed with.
Another approach I tried was this. Starting with the original integral,
$x=\tan u$: $$I=2\int_0^{\pi/2}u\tan u\log\sec^2u\ du$$ Which I also do not know how to do. Please help me proceed or give me a value of the integral (and show how you got it).
If no closed form exists (AKA you have an answer in terms of a series or special function), I'm fine with that.
cheers!
Edit: In the comments it is discussed that the integral is not integrable over the positive reals, but the following related integral is:
$$J=\int_0^{\infty}\frac{\log(1+x^2)\arctan\frac1x}{1+x^2}xdx$$ So. How do we find the value for $J$?