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As an example: $$ F(x) = \frac{(1-x)^2-1}{(1+x)^2-1} $$

When $x=0$ this involves $0/0$ and calculators output 'undefined'.

But when looking at a graph of the function it is intuitively clear that the answer should be $F(0) = -1$.

Is there something that can be done with the function to get the expected output?

Byron
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    Yes, you can calculate the limit $\lim\limits_{x\to0} F(x)$ as well. Note that $F$ is not defined at $x=0$, so there is not "$F(0)$". – Rodrigo Dias Nov 01 '18 at 00:42

3 Answers3

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Using that

$$A^2-B^2=(A-B)(A+B)$$

We have

$$F(x) = \frac{(1-x)^2-1}{(1+x)^2-1} = \frac{(1-x)-1}{(1+x)-1}\cdot \frac{(1-x)+1}{(1+x)+1}=$$ $$ \frac{-x}{x}\cdot \frac{(1-x)+1}{(1+x)+1}=-1\cdot \frac{2-x}{2+x}\to -1$$

indeed then recall that we can cancel out the $x$ terms and take the limit.

Refer also to the related:

user
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One never "guesses" such an answer. Never.

Instead, compute

$$\lim\limits_{x \to 0} {(1-x)^2 -1 \over (1+x)^2 -1}$$

which is undefined, so you use l'Hospital's rule, which gives the answer you expect.

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Yes, you can compute $$ \lim_{x\to0} F(x). $$

Federico
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