Let $G$ be a group and $g_{1},g_{2} \in G$, then if $g_{1}g_{2}$ has finite order then we have to prove that $g_{2}g_{1}$ also has finite order too.
I have proved like this-
If $g_{1}g_{2}$ has finite order that means there exists positive integer $n$ such that $(g_{1}g_{2})^n = e$, now we rewrite the equation in a clever way.
$(g_{1}g_{2})^n = e$
$(g_{1}g_{2})(g_{1}g_{2})(g_{1}g_{2})...(g_{1}g_{2})= e$
$g_{1}(g_{2}g_{1})^{n-1} g_{2} = e$
$(g_{2}g_{1})^{n-1} = g_{1}^{-1}g_{2}^{-1}$
Multiplying $g_{2}g_{1}$ on both sides from the left hand side, we get -
$(g_{2}g_{1})^n = g_{2}g_{1}g_{1}^{-1}g_{2}^{-1} = e$
Implying that the element $g_{2}g_{1}$ has finite order too.
Now I am thinking of another approach, that is through homomorphism -
That is can we find a homomorphism between the two -
Say $\phi$, that is $\phi(g_{1}g_{2}) = g_{2}g_{1}$, which would mean that $\phi(g_{1}) \phi(g_{2}) = g_{2} g_{1}$.
Any candidate for $\phi$, as if I can find a homomorphism then the order of both the elements will be same.