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For example, let $f= \sum_{i=0}^n a_ix^i$. If every $a_i\not\in U(A)$, then $\exists b_i\in A$ with $b_i \neq 0$ for every $i$ such that $a_ib_i=0$, so I can take $a = \prod b_i$ reaches what I need.

I tried using $f|0$ saying that exists a $g$ such that $fg\equiv0$, but the only thing I've reached with this is this is that the independant term of $fg$ is $0$.

Another thing I noticed is that $Im(f) \in A-U(A)$

Silkking
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    The notation $f \mid 0$ makes no sense here ($0$ is divisible by any element of a ring). Are you trying to say $f$ is a zero-divisor (i.e., there exists some nonzero $g \in A\left[X\right]$ such that $fg=0$) ? In that case, this is a known fact (see, e.g. https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/83121/zero-divisor-in-rx ). – darij grinberg Oct 08 '18 at 00:04
  • Thanks. I thought $f|0$ was the same, but I realize now that is not. I'll look at the original question – Silkking Oct 08 '18 at 00:21

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