I'm reading this paper and I think that the author uses the fact that numbers of form $n^2 + 1$ have only prime factors of form $4m + 1$ (excluding the case when $n$ is odd so $2$ is also a possible prime factor). Why is this so?
As I can see, if $n$ is even then $n^2 + 1 \equiv 1\ (\textrm{mod}\ 4)$ and as long as there is even number of prime factors of form $4m + 3$ that won't be violated.