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How does one prove that? Surely its not that hard to prove and it seems to me I have seen a solution somewhere but now I can not recall where it was.

Chinny84
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9Rx4FHm
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  • Consider $\left|,e^{int}-e^{i(n+1)t},\right|=\left|,1-e^{it},\right|$ and show that this prevents the sequence from being Cauchy. – robjohn Oct 03 '18 at 18:34

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I based this proof on the answer to a similar question.

Suppose $\lim_{n\to\infty} e^{it\cdot n} = x$ as the limit. Then $x = \lim_{n\to\infty} e^{it\cdot (n + 1)} = e^{it}\lim_{n\to\infty} e^{itn} = e^{it}x$ But that would mean $e^{it} = 1$ or $x=0$. The case where $e^{it} = 1$ is impossible with the bounds on $t$. And $x\neq 0$ since $|e^{iv}| = 1$ for any value of $v$, meaning the limit must also lie on that circle. (Thank you, Andrei, for mentioning the $x=0$ case.

Larry B.
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