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Show that there are infinitely many integers $n$ such that $43 \mid(n^2+n+41)$.

Assume $f(n) = (n^2+n+41)$. Then $f(1)=1^2+1+41 = 43$. So $f(1) \equiv 0 \pmod{43}$. If $n \equiv 1 \pmod{43}$ then $f(n)=0 \pmod{43}$.

Is this proof correct? I'm just starting to learn some number theory and I'm not as confident in this as, say, real analysis or linear algebra.

Any help is appreciated.

rtybase
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Idle Fool
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1 Answers1

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Yes, it looks correct. Just for the record, this technique is covered in Hardy's "An Introduction To The Theory Of Numbers" (more details here), if $f(x)$ is a polynomial then: $$f(k)=m \Rightarrow m \mid f(m\cdot n + k), \forall n$$

rtybase
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  • Off topic, but, Is Hardy's book really good? i.e. would you recommend it to someone at, say, the advanced undergrad level? – Idle Fool Sep 26 '18 at 13:17
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    @IdleMathGuy it was updated several times, I personally like it. Check the pdf version ... Or content/index with Amazon preview. – rtybase Sep 26 '18 at 13:56