Suppose f is a function from X to Y and g is a function from Y to Z. Prove the following: g o f is one-to-one, then f is one-to-one.
How would I start such a problem.
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Are you sure you don't want the whole answer? If you don't, then don't click here https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/1274914/show-that-if-g-circ-f-is-injective-then-so-is-f – Sep 21 '18 at 02:28
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That is practically like: "do not think of the pink elephant." – For the love of maths Sep 21 '18 at 02:46