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I was reading Wilcox and Myers' "Introduction to Lebesgue Integration and Fourier Series" (Dover). On p.18, the authors try to prove that every non-empty open subset $G$ of the reals can be expressed uniquely as a countable union of pairwise disjoint open intervals. Their proof is quite similar to the one in this question or the one in Steven Krantz's "A Guide to Topology" (MAA). So, I guess this is a rather usual proof.

At some point, the authors have shown that when $G$ is bounded, $G$ can be written as a disjoint union of non-empty open intervals $\cup_{x\in G}I_x$, where either $I_x\cap I_y=\phi$ or $I_x=I_y$ for any $x,y\in G$. Then they write:

That this collection is countable follows from the fact that one can choose a rational number in each $I_x$ (using the axiom of choice), and the disjointness of the intervals guarantees that no duplication will occur in the choice of rationals.

Why do we need the axiom of choice? If we denote $I_x=(a_x,b_x)$ and define \begin{align} n_x&=\left\lceil\frac1{b_x-a_x}\right\rceil+1,\\ q_x&=\min\left\{\frac{j}{n_x}\in I_x:\ j\in\mathbb Z\right\}, \end{align} doesn't it suffice to pick $q_x$ as a representative of $I_x$? What am I missing?

  • No, we do not need the axiom of choice. We also do not need in this case to choose representatives (the rational number in $I_x$ mentioned above), but it doesn't matter anyway, because as you say one can explicitly pick a rational in that case, if need be. – Andrés E. Caicedo Sep 19 '18 at 17:08
  • Yes, there are ways to show this without choice and yours is one of them. I suspect choice is invoked for the purpose of having to avoid explicitly write down such a formula. – user10354138 Sep 19 '18 at 17:10
  • @AndrésE.Caicedo If we don't pick representatives, how do we prove that the collection of $I_x$s is countable? – Ramen Nii-chan Sep 19 '18 at 17:10
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    All I meant is that you know you can associate a rational to each interval in each case, you do not need to go through the trouble of making it explicit. Or you can do this: Fix one of the intervals $I_x$. Define a map with domain $\mathbb Q$ by sending a rational not in the union of the $I_y$ to $I_x$, and a rational in the union to the unique $I_z$ it belongs to. This map is onto from $\mathbb Q$ to the family of intervals $I_y$. On abstract grounds, without invoking choice, if there is an onto map from a countable set to a set $Y$, then $Y$ is countable. – Andrés E. Caicedo Sep 19 '18 at 17:16
  • (Yes, I admit it is like pulling at straws to say that I am not really picking representatives.) – Andrés E. Caicedo Sep 19 '18 at 17:16
  • @AndrésE.Caicedo Oh, you are right. Thanks. I am too used to the definition of countability using injection. – Ramen Nii-chan Sep 19 '18 at 17:28

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