Well, I am trying to use the fact that $S^1$'s fundamental groups is free and generated by on element ($\mathbb{Z}$), denoting $\pi_1(S^1) = \langle [\gamma] \rangle$. When $\gamma$ is a loop starts at $(0,1)$ and going clockwise through $S^1$ . Using the quotient map $q:S^1 \rightarrow \mathbb{R}P^1$ ($x \mapsto \{x,-x\}$) as a covering map, one get that $[\gamma] \mapsto q_*([\gamma]) = [q\circ\gamma]= \cases{\alpha(s) : s\in[0,\pi] \\ \alpha(s-\pi) : s\in[0,2\pi]}$ when $\alpha$ is the loop in $\mathbb{R}P^1$ which starts at $(0,1)$, and going clockwise till $(0,-1) \sim (0,1)$.
$q\circ \gamma$ is homotopic to $\cases{\alpha(2s) : s\in[0,\pi] \\ \alpha(2s-2\pi) : s\in[0,2\pi]}$ by the homotopy $F_t(s) = \cases{\alpha(2(1+t)s) : s\in[0,\pi] \\ \alpha((1+t)(s-\pi)) : s\in[0,2\pi]}$ which in turn is homotopic to $\alpha * \alpha$ (just composing a function to change the domain from $[0,2\pi]$ to $[0,1]$.
So one may conclude that $[q\circ \gamma] = [\alpha * \alpha]$ , but I don't succeed in formally proceeding to the conclusion that $\mathbb{R}P^1$ is generated by $\alpha$ which is what I wished to achieve. Any help, and other ideas would be appreciated!