My professor says that "the normal equations always have a solution", even when $A$ is not full rank. HOwever, this does not make sense to me. The normal equations are
$$A^\dagger=(A^TA)^{-1}A^T$$
$A^TA$ is invertible IFF $A$ is full column rank. So, it seems to me like there is only a solution to the normal equations if $A$ is full column rank?
edit: I wonder if he meant to say "we can always find the Moore Penrose Inverse even when $A$ is not full rank". that makes more sense to me but I just wantto confirm.