I recently learnt about inverse trigonometric functions. While studying, I came across a formula
$$\arcsin\left(2x\sqrt{1-x^2}\right)=2\arcsin x$$
The proof of this was given by substituting $x$ by $\sin\phi$. However if we substitute $x$ by $\cos\phi$, we can prove that the above expression equals $2\arccos x$. And indeed while going through another book I found that the above expression equals $2\arcsin x$ for $x$ between $-1/\sqrt{2}$ and $1/\sqrt{2}$ and $2\arccos x$ for $x$ between $1/\sqrt{2}$ and $1$. I graphed the function in GeoGebra and wanted to post the images but I can't. Links: arcsin(2x√1-x²) 2arcsin(x) 2arccos(x)
But it was clear that $\arcsin\left(2x\sqrt{1-x^2}\right)$ is not equal to $\arcsin x$ throughout its domain.
So the question is:why isn't $\arcsin\left(2x\sqrt{1-x^2}\right)=2\arcsin x$ throughout its domain? Why is there another definition for it?
Also as a bonus question, what can be a definition for the expression for $x$ between $-1/\sqrt{2}$ and $-1$?
Please explain in a simple way.
I'm new to high level mathematics that is common here in mathstackexchange :)