The problem I am working on is stated as follows.
Let $A \subset R^2$ be open and $(a_1,a_2)\in A$. Suppose $f:A\to R$ satisfies that $\frac{\partial f}{\partial x_1}(a_1, a_2)$ exists, and that $\frac{\partial f}{\partial x_2}$ is continuous in $A$. Prove that $f$ is differentiable at $(a_1, a_2)$.
My professor gave the title as a remark to the proof that if all partials exist and are continuous in $A$ then $f$ is differentiable. I am having trouble proving it even for this specific case that I am working with. I used an argument involving the mean value theorem to show that $|f(y)-f(x)-\sum_{i=1}^2\frac{\partial f}{\partial x_i}(x_1,x_2)*(y_i-x_i)|$ $\leq ||y-x||*[|\frac{\partial f}{\partial x_1}(u_1,y_2)-\frac{\partial f}{\partial x_1}(x_1,x_2)|+|\frac{\partial f}{\partial x_2}(x_1,u_2)-\frac{\partial f}{\partial x_2}(x_1,x_2)|]$ ,where $u_i$ is between $x_i$ and $y_i$.
From here I can use the continuity of $\frac{\partial f}{\partial x_2}$ to show that the second term in the inequality is bounded by $\frac{\epsilon}{2}$ but I am unsure of how I can get a nice upper bound for the first term. I realize I skipped a lot of intermediate steps but I am not sure if this is even the correct way to proceed with this proof. If someone could help me with a hint or maybe some intuition on why this statement should be true I would really appreciate it.