I'm not sure how to evaluate the following :
$$ \sum_{k=i}^n \frac{1}{k!(n-k)!} $$
Where $i,n \in \mathbb{N}, n > i$ are given.
I don't have any working for this, I just looked it at and don't have any idea how to go about evaluating it.
I'm not sure how to evaluate the following :
$$ \sum_{k=i}^n \frac{1}{k!(n-k)!} $$
Where $i,n \in \mathbb{N}, n > i$ are given.
I don't have any working for this, I just looked it at and don't have any idea how to go about evaluating it.
As pointed out by @drhab, your sum is equivalent to $\frac{1}{n!}\sum_{k=i}^n\binom{n}{k}$. Given that $\sum_{k=0}^n\binom{n}{k}=2^n$, your sum can be rearranged to $$\frac{2^n}{n!}-\frac1{n!}\sum_{k=0}^{i-1}\binom{n}{k}$$
Hence, the partial sum of binomial coefficients, $\sum_{k=0}^{i-1}\binom{n}{k}$, is the heart of your problem. The sum can be expressed in various other ways (such as with hypergeometric or beta functions) and, as pointed out by @Henry, it has some nice expressions for specific $n,i$. But unfortunately, it has no closed form in terms of the sum of a fixed number of hypergeometric terms (Petrovsek, 1996. Theorem 5.6.3, pp. 88, 94, 102; 2, p. 6). But then again, it could possibly have a different type of closed form.
Despite having no closed form, the sum has been studied before and can be approximated and bounded: