First I let $x=r\cos \theta, y = r\sin \theta$ and so limit
$$\lim_{r\to 0} r^2\sin2\theta \log(r)$$
Now, in region $0<x<1$, $\log(x) < 1/x$ $$|r^2\sin 2\theta \log (r) - 0| < |r\sin 2\theta| \le |r| < \delta < \epsilon$$
So limit exist if $\delta < \epsilon$ and limit is 0.
Other way, I used L hospital, I don't know if we can apply, but I wrote $r^2 \log r$ as $\log(r) / (r^{-2})$ which again gave 0.