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I have the following equation I would like to extract $x^k$ out of $$ \sum^\infty_{k=0}x^k \Gamma \bigg(l,\frac{ax-1}{a^2}\bigg) $$ I start by expanding the incomplete gamma function, and then the ensuing exponential $$ \begin{align} &= \sum^\infty_{k=0}x^k\Gamma(l)e^{-\frac{ax-1}{a^2}}\sum^{l-1}_{m=0}\bigg(\frac{ax-1}{a^2}\bigg)^m\frac{1}{m!}\\ &=\Gamma(l)\sum^\infty_{k=0}x^k\sum^\infty_{n=0}\bigg(\frac{1-ax}{a^2}\bigg)^n\frac{1}{n!}\sum^{l-1}_{m=0}\bigg(-\frac{1-ax}{a^2}\bigg)^m\frac 1{m!} \end{align} $$ I'm then not sure how to proceed.

My attempt is to pull the terminal sum out front and change the starting index of $k$ $$ =\Gamma(l)\sum^{l-1}_{m=0}\sum^\infty_{k=m}x^k\bigg(-\frac{1-ax}{a^2}\bigg)^m\frac 1{m!}\sum^\infty_{n=0}\bigg(\frac{1-ax}{a^2}\bigg)^n\frac{1}{n!} $$ I think then perhaps a binomial expansion of $1-ax$ to isolate $x$ and recombine as $$ =\Gamma(l)\sum^{l-1}_{m=0}\sum^\infty_{k=m}\sum^m_{j=0}\begin{pmatrix} m \\ j \end{pmatrix} (a^{-2})^j(a^{-1})^{m-j}\frac 1{m!}\sum^\infty_{n=0}\sum^n_{q=0}\begin{pmatrix} n \\ q \end{pmatrix} \left(a^{-2}\right)^{q}\left(-a^{-1}\right)^{n-q}(x)^{m-j+k+n-q}\frac{1}{n!} $$ I now have $x$ on its own, but have no idea how to pull it out front. I then want to reuse the exponential and incomplete gamma functions to tidy the resulting formula up. I'd imagine a quotient containing the incomplete gamma function as a final result.

** Edit **

In a similar (and simpler) example we would have $$ \sum^\infty_{k=0} x^k \sum^n_{m=0}\frac{(nx)^m}{m!} = \sum^n_{m=0}\sum^\infty_{k=m}x^k\frac{n^m}{m!} = \sum^\infty_{k=0}x^k\sum^{(k,n)}_{m=0}\frac{n^m}{m!} = e^n\sum^\infty_{k=0}x^k\frac{\Gamma((k,n)+1,n)}{\Gamma((k,n)+1)} $$ where $(k,n)$ denotes the lesser of $k$ or $n$. I wish to retain the sum over k and pull $x^k$ outside (if possible).

RedPen
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1 Answers1

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It is convenient to use the coefficient of operator $[x^n]$ to denote the coefficient of $x^n$.

We obtain for $j\geq 0$: \begin{align*} [x^j]\sum^\infty_{k=0}&x^k\sum^\infty_{n=0}\left(\frac{1-ax}{a^2}\right)^n\frac{1}{n!}\sum^{l-1}_{m=0}\left(-\frac{1-ax}{a^2}\right)^m\frac 1{m!}\\ &=\sum_{k=0}^j[x^{j-k}]\sum^\infty_{n=0}\left(\frac{1-ax}{a^2}\right)^n\frac{1}{n!}\sum^{l-1}_{m=0}\left(-\frac{1-ax}{a^2}\right)^m\frac 1{m!}\tag{1}\\ &=\sum_{k=0}^j\sum_{n=0}^\infty \sum_{m=0}^{l-1}\frac{(-1)^m}{n!m!a^{2(n+m)}}[x^k](1-ax)^{n+m}\tag{2}\\ &=\sum_{k=0}^j\sum_{n=0}^\infty\sum_{m=0}^{l-1}\frac{(-1)^m}{n!m!a^{2^{(n+m)}}}[x^k]\sum_{r=0}^{n+m}\binom{n+m}{r}(-ax)^r\tag{3}\\ &\,\,\color{blue}{=\sum_{k=0}^j\sum_{n=0}^\infty \sum_{m=0}^{l-1}\binom{n+m}{k}\frac{(-1)^{m+j}}{n!m!a^{2(n+m)-k}}}\tag{4} \end{align*}

Comment:

  • In (1) we select the coefficient of $x^j$ and apply the rule $[x^p]x^qA(x)=[x^{p-q}]A(x)$. We set the upper limit of the outer sum to $j$ since higher indices do not contribute to $[x^j]$.

  • In (2) we change the order of summation of the outer sum by letting $k\to j-k$ and do some rearrangements.

  • In (3) we expand the binomial as preparation for the next step.

  • In (4) we select the coefficient of $x^k$. Note that the double sum is zero as long as $n+m<k$.

Markus Scheuer
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  • Wow, thank you very much, I have never heard of this operator before! I'm not sure I understand (2) --> (3)? Could I still pull $\sum_k x^k$ out of this expression? (I will edit the question to show what I mean in more detail.) Once again, thank you for your time! – RedPen Aug 25 '18 at 03:09
  • @RedPen: You're welcome. I've added a step which might be helpful. – Markus Scheuer Aug 25 '18 at 07:26
  • thank you once again for your helpful edit. Would I be correct in thinking that this gives me the coefficient of the $j$th term? I could then write $\sum_{j=0}^\infty f_jx^j$ (where $f_j$ is your highlighted formula)? This would then be my closed form series? – RedPen Aug 25 '18 at 10:06
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    @RedPen: Yes, it's exactly as you indicate. – Markus Scheuer Aug 25 '18 at 10:30
  • In going from (1) to (2), when we change the index and the order of summation. How do we get $j$ from setting $k\rightarrow j-k$? If there were terms present in $k$ in the equation, would they also convert to $k\rightarrow j-k$ too? – RedPen Aug 25 '18 at 14:32
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    @RedPen: There was a mistake when applying the coefficient of operator the first time. I've mixed up $k$ and $j$. This implies that we also cannot get rid of the outer sum. It's now corrected. Thanks. ... And yes, setting $k\to j-k$ applies then to each occurrence of $k$. – Markus Scheuer Aug 25 '18 at 15:19
  • Sorry to keep pestering you (I hope you don't mind me asking one more question). In a very similar problem, on step (2), I have $$\sum^j_{k=0}P(k)[z^{j-2k}]A(z)$$ If I choose $2k\rightarrow j-k$ then $k\rightarrow (j-k)/2$, which doesn't seem good to have non-integer index. In this case, how can I proceed to re-order the summations? – RedPen Aug 27 '18 at 09:13
  • (I would like to give you a bounty to say thank you for your help too!) – RedPen Aug 27 '18 at 09:15
  • @RedPen: No worries. :-) In this case it might be more convenient to keep the exponent $j-2k$ without changing the order of the sum. In fact it depends on the structure of $A(z)$. If $A(z)$ is a power series, the upper limit of the sum is $\lfloor{j/2}\rfloor$ instead of $j$ to respect that $j-2k\geq 0$. Many thanks for your nice bounty offer, I do appreciate it. But, if you want to keep your rep, this would be also fine to me. (It's the idea which counts. :-)) – Markus Scheuer Aug 27 '18 at 09:29
  • Thank you for your reply! Ah, yes, that makes sense. I have $$[z^j] \sum^\infty_{k=0}P(k)z^{2k}\sum^\infty_{n=0}\left(\frac{1-ax}{a^2}\right)^n\frac{1}{n!}\sum^{l-1}_{m=0}\left(-\frac{1-ax}{a^2}\right)^m\frac 1{m!}$$ So, the process is identical apart from the sum over $k$ ends at $j/2$ and that $2k\rightarrow j-k$? (The bounty is yours, I really appreciate your help and for introducing this operator to me, but I can only award it in 24 hours). :) – RedPen Aug 27 '18 at 09:36
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    @RedPen: Many thanks for the bounty, this is very kind of you. Yes, the process is identical. You might find this answer and this one helpful, which show the coeffcient of operator in action in slightly more complex applications. – Markus Scheuer Aug 27 '18 at 09:44
  • @RedPen: Many thanks for granting the bounty! :-) – Markus Scheuer Aug 28 '18 at 11:19