Sure. Just make the obvious change to the Dirichlet energy. Let $A\in\mathcal{C}^1(\Omega;\mathbb{R}^{n\times n})$ be a matrix-valued function that is symmetric and positive definite for every $x\in\Omega$ (I think the regularity of $A$ can be relaxed to only having measurable coefficients, but I'm not too familiar with the intricacies of regularity theory in this context).
Now consider $E:L^2(\Omega)\to\overline{\mathbb{R}}$ be defined as
$$E_{A}(u):=\int_{\Omega}A\nabla u\cdot\nabla u~dx$$ for $u\in H^1(\Omega)$ and extended to $+\infty$ for all other $u\in L^2(\Omega)\setminus H^1(\Omega)$.
One easily computes the Fréchet differential (Euler-Lagrange equations) of $E$ as
$$dE_A(u)[v]=\int_{\Omega}A\nabla u\cdot\nabla v~dx$$ for $u,v\in H^1(\Omega)$. Thus, $dE_A(u)[v]=(u,v)_{L^2(\Omega)}$ implies that $-\operatorname{div}(A\nabla u)=v$ in the weak sense (essentially by definition). Now we see that the $L^2$-gradient flow of $E_A$ is nothing more than the desired anisotropic diffusion:
$$\partial_tu-\operatorname{div}(A\nabla u)=0.$$
Note that here we are considering an $L^2$-gradient flow. For full generality / to rigorously define and analyze this flow you should consider this as an $L^2$-subgradient inclusion/flow since the energy is infinite for $u\in L^2(\Omega)\setminus H^1(\Omega)$. You don't even need to start with $u_0\in H^1(\Omega)$ for solutions to exist at all...