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I would like to show the following is true; Let $p\in\mathbb{P}, \alpha,n\in\mathbb{N}$. Then

$$p^\alpha\mid\sum_{k=1}^{n-1}\binom{(p^\alpha-1)n}{(p^\alpha -1)k}.$$

I've never worked with prime powers inside binomial coefficients. I was hoping to see if there are any theorems, papers, or other research materials that deal with these types of objects. The reason for the belief is due to a Mathematica calculation that I ran that suggests this holds so long as the binomial coefficient involves multiples of $m=p^\alpha-1$. Here is the calculation.

enter image description here

The green rows represent the values of $m$ from 2 to 30 that support the divisibility claim. These numbers in order are

$$2,3,4,6,7,8,10,12,15,16,18,22,24,26,28,30$$

and these numbers, when entered into OEIS.org return that these numbers are prime powers minus one. (i ran the calculation again from $m=31..50$ to ensure this was the correct sequence, as for $m=1$ to $30$ yield a similar sequence...but i verified that $44$ is not a value of $m$ that produces divisibility). I know that this does not constitute a proof, and in NT, 40 is so small a number to test. But I reran the calculation for $n$ up to $100$ and $m$ up to $100$ and it still seems to hold. If this is true, it must be due to the nature of $p^{\alpha}-1$ as apposed to $p^{\alpha}\cdot k-1$, where $k$ is some other integer.

I know that $p^\alpha-1=(p-1)(p^{\alpha-1}+p^{\alpha-2}+...+p+1)$ but I can't see how this helps. Are there properties of cyclotomic polynomials that help?

EDIT: This question is directly related. Thank you.

Eric Wofsey
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Lalaloopsy
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    A few quick checks seems to suggest that $p^\alpha\mid\binom{(p^\alpha-1)n}{(p^\alpha -1)k}$ for $1<k<n$. In other words, the divisibility claim is satisfied for each term of the sum. Maybe this is easier to show? – Steve Kass Aug 20 '18 at 16:15
  • Nice... i will check it out. – Lalaloopsy Aug 20 '18 at 16:18
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    For $m<p$, the term-wise divisibility follows from Kummer's theorem. Numerically, term-wise divisibility fails sometimes for $m\geq p$ (specifically, this appears to happen when $p|m$). – Julian Rosen Aug 20 '18 at 16:48
  • So are you saying that the overall claim is false? – Lalaloopsy Aug 20 '18 at 17:02
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    No, just that term-wise divisibility fails sometimes. – Julian Rosen Aug 20 '18 at 17:11
  • Thanks for the input. I'm not familiar with p-adic integers or Kummer's theorem, so I guess I have some studying to do...or I'll let my research professor teach me. Ha ha. – Lalaloopsy Aug 20 '18 at 17:13
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    @JulianRosen, In the original question, $m=p^\alpha-1$. You say the termwise divisibility can fail when $p|m$, but $m=p^\alpha-1$ for $\alpha$ a positive integer is never a multiple of $p$, so $m$ is never a multiple of $p$ here. Does Kummer’s theorem then imply the termwise divisibility here? (Also, $m<p$ only when $\alpha=1$. I don’t immediately see how Kummer’s theorem applies, since it is not a straightforward statement about divisibility for a single binomial coefficient.) – Steve Kass Aug 20 '18 at 17:21
  • @SteveKass Oh sorry, I meant to say there's term-wise divisibility when $n<p$, but apparently not when $p|n$. – Julian Rosen Aug 20 '18 at 17:35
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    Thanks! I found an example where termwise divisibility fails but the conjecture still holds. However, not for $p|n$, but for $p|n-1$. Could that be the case you meant? The example I found is for $m=15=2^4-1$ and $n=17$. While $2^4\mid\sum_{k=1}^{16}\binom{255}{15k}$, it turns out that $2^4$ never divides $\binom{255}{15k}$, as these binomial coefficients are all odd. – Steve Kass Aug 20 '18 at 17:46
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    @SteveKass Oh yes, I meant $p|n-1$ – Julian Rosen Aug 20 '18 at 18:00
  • I know how to show the sum in question is divisible by p, but getting divisibility by higher powers of p has stumped me. I don't know whether this weaker result is of any interest. – Peter McNamara Aug 21 '18 at 08:02
  • I just got home and was about to do the bounty, but @Sil beat me too it! – Lalaloopsy Aug 21 '18 at 18:54
  • Since Peter says the sum is divisible by $p^1$ and Julian says $p|n-1$ is where termwise divisibility can fail, I used Mathematica (correctly, I hope) to check the conjecture for all non-trivial powers $p^\alpha$ of the first $20$ primes where $p^\alpha<20000$ and for $n\in{p+1,2p+1}$. The conjecture holds. (I have no further clues how to prove it, unfortunately.)

    Table[Mod[Sum[Binomial[m*n, m*i], {i, 1, n - 1}], m + 1], {p, Table[Prime[i], {i, 1, 20}]}, {m, Table[p^alpha - 1, {alpha, 2, 10/Log[p]}]}, {n, p + 1, 2 p + 1, p}]

    – Steve Kass Aug 22 '18 at 00:14
  • Can you keep pushing the prime power upper bound higher? Does it still hold for the first 100 primes? – Lalaloopsy Aug 22 '18 at 00:36
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    @SteveKass On Mathematica ver 10.1.3.0 you will get a wrong answer for $p=17,\alpha =6, n=9$. It should return $0$ for each term, which is easy to show with Kummer's Theorem, but Mathematica returns $8$. If you find any counterexamples be sure to check them thoroughly. I would recommend implementing Generalized Lucas Theorem for testing larger ranges. Mathematica computes the actual binomial terms which makes it too slow for large parameters. – Yong Hao Ng Aug 22 '18 at 12:29
  • Sorry, I meant to say return $8$ for the entire sum. A simpler example: this command below returns $1$: Binomial[(17^6 - 1) 9, (17^6 - 1)] – Yong Hao Ng Aug 22 '18 at 15:45
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    You may check if this combinatorial identity may help. – Fabius Wiesner Aug 22 '18 at 20:50
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    This "Amazing properties of binomial coefficients" on problem 1.6 on page 2 (solution at page 7) solves the case $\alpha = 1$. I tried to extend 1.1a and 2.7 (which is the same as 1.1a for $p$ odd) to $\mod p^n$ but verified that often it does not hold. – Fabius Wiesner Aug 25 '18 at 09:15
  • As already suggested the Generalized Lucas Theorem can be used to find counterexamples (or a proof?). – Fabius Wiesner Aug 25 '18 at 11:20
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    So what has been proven, what disproven and what conjectured? The comment thread is confusing to outsiders. – darij grinberg Aug 25 '18 at 19:12
  • What happened to the answer? Was it wrong? I was just about to go over it... – Lalaloopsy Aug 26 '18 at 18:32
  • @Lalaloopsy The author deleted it because they noticed a mistake. Here is their attempt; the mistake is in the $\equiv$ step of the base case. – Mike Earnest Aug 27 '18 at 17:21
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    @Mike Earnest if the mistake is in the base case, and the rest is OK, then it's not a problem since, as already said above, the base case is easy to show using Kummer's theorem by writing down $2(p^\alpha-1)$ and $p^\alpha-1$ in base $p$: you will have $n-m=2(p^\alpha-1)-(p^\alpha-1)=p^\alpha-1=(p-1)p^{\alpha-1}+\ldots+(p-1)$, which added to $m=p^\alpha-1$ gives $\alpha$ carries – Fabius Wiesner Aug 27 '18 at 18:40
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    @mbjoe The logic in the base case is reused in the inductive step. – Mike Earnest Aug 27 '18 at 18:46

1 Answers1

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The claim is true. Summary: we show by induction it is enough to prove the congruence for $A_m$ for $m = 1,\ldots, k$ where $N+1 = p^k$, and then we prove that by showing (in this particular case) that the binomial coefficients are all divisible by $p^k$ (which doesn't hold in general).

Let $$A_m = \sum_{j=0}^{m} \binom{Nm}{Nj}.$$ The claim to be proven is $A_m \equiv 2 \mod N+1$ if $N + 1 = p^k$ is a prime power.

Note that

$$(1 + x)^{Nm} = \sum_{j=0}^{Nm} \binom{Nm}{j} x^j,$$

if one lets $\zeta$ denote a primitive $N$th root of unity, then

$$ \sum_{i=0}^{N-1} (1 + \zeta^i)^{Nm} = \sum_{j=0}^{Nm} \binom{Nm}{j} \sum_{i=0}^{N-1} \zeta^{ji}$$ $$ = \sum_{j=0}^{Nm} \binom{Nm}{j} \begin{cases} N, & j \equiv 0 \mod N \\ 0, & j \not\equiv 0 \mod N. \end{cases}$$ $$ = N \sum_{j=0}^{m} \binom{Nm}{Nj}.$$ So if, for $m \ge 1$, $$B_m = \sum_{i=0}^{N-1} (1 + \zeta^i)^{Nm} = \sum_{\zeta^i \ne -1} (1 + \zeta^i)^{Nm},$$ then the congruence $A_m \equiv 2 \mod (N+1)$ is equivalent to the congruence $B_m \equiv - 2 \mod (N+1)$.

The roots of unity are all distinct modulo $p$, so there is a unique $\zeta^i \equiv -1 \mod p$. If $p$ is odd, then $N$ is even, and it is $\zeta^{i} = -1$, and $(1 + \zeta^i) = 0$. If $p = 2$, then $N$ is odd, and it is $\zeta^i = 1$ and $(1 + \zeta^i) = 2$. In the latter case, for $m \ge 1$, the term $(1 + \zeta^i)^N$ is equal to $2^N$ which is certainly trivial modulo $2^k = N+1$ because $2^N \ge N+1 = 2^k$. Hence we have

$$B_m = \sum_{\zeta^i \ne -1} (1 + \zeta^i)^{Nm} \equiv \sum_{\zeta^i \not\equiv -1} (1 + \zeta^i)^{Nm} \mod p^k.$$

The polynomial $X^N - 1$ is separable over $\mathbf{F}_p$. Moreover, its roots over this field are precisely the units of $\mathbf{F}_q$, since the units in that field are cyclic of order $q - 1 = N$. Hence the extension cut out by the roots of unity $\zeta^i$ over $\mathbf{Q}_p$ is just the fraction field of the Witt vectors $W(\mathbf{F}_q)$. All of this is just to say (if you don't know algebraic number theory) that it makes sense to talk of congruences for these algebraic integers modulo powers of $p$, and that we also have (assuming $\zeta^i \not\equiv -1 \mod p$): $$(1 + \zeta^i)^N \equiv 1 \mod p$$ Hence it also follows that $$((1 + \zeta^i)^{N} - 1)^k \equiv 0 \mod p^k$$ But then, for any non-negative integer $r$, we have: $$\sum_{\zeta^i \not\equiv -1} ((1 + \zeta^i)^{N} - 1)^k (1 + \zeta^i)^{Nr} \equiv 0 \mod p^k,$$ or, expanding out: $$ \sum_{r=0}^{k} B_{n+ r} (-1)^r \binom{k}{r} \equiv 0 \mod p^k,$$ and thus we obtain the $k$-term recurrence $$B_{n+k} (-1)^{k-1} = \sum_{r=0}^{k-1} B_{n+r} (-1)^r \binom{k}{r} \mod p^k$$ Suppose that $B_m \equiv -2 \mod p^k$ for $m = 1, \ldots, k$. Then, by induction, we get $B_m \equiv -2 \mod p^k$ for all $m$, simply by applying the recurrence above and using the identity $$\sum (-1)^r \binom{k}{r} = 0.$$ So we just need to prove the first few values of $A_m \equiv 2 \mod p^k$. But now we can look at the actual binomial coefficients themselves.

Suppose that $N+1 = p^k$. We claim that, in the range $a+b \le k$ and $a,b > 0$, we have $$\binom{N(a+b)}{Nb} \equiv 0 \mod p^k.$$ Once we know this, it follows that $A_m \equiv 2 \mod p^k$ for $m \le k$ and we are done by induction.

In fact, since trivially $k \le p^k$, we are done by the following stronger claim.

Claim Suppose that $a + b \le p^k$ and $N + 1 = p^k$. Then the $p$-adic valuation of $$\binom{N(a+b)}{Nb}$$ for $a,b \ge 1$ is exactly $k$.

Proof

The $p$-adic valuation of the binomial coefficient is precisely the number of times one has to carry the one when adding $Na$ and $Nb$. For a number $0 \le m-1 < p^k$ (which includes $a-1$, $b-1$, and $c = a+b-1$, we may write $$m - 1 = (m_{k-1}, m_{k-2}, \ldots, m_0)$$ in base $p$, and we may also write $$p^k - m = (p^k - 1) - (m - 1) = (m'_{k-1}, m'_{k-2}, \ldots, m'_0).$$ Since $$m-1 + (p^k - m) = p^k - 1,$$ we have, for all $i = 0,1,\ldots,k-1$, that $$m_i + m'_i = p - 1.$$ We now find that $aN$, $bN$, and $cN$ have $p$-adic expansions as follows $$aN = (a_{k-1}, a_{k-2}, \ldots, a_0,a'_{k-1}, \ldots, a'_0),$$ $$bN = (b_{k-1}, b_{k-2}, \ldots, b_0,b'_{k-1}, \ldots, b'_0),$$ $$cN = (c_{k-1}, c_{k-2}, \ldots, c_0,c'_{k-1}, \ldots, c'_0),$$ As noted before, we have $$a_i + a'_i = p-1, \ b_i + b'_i = p-1, c_i + c'_i = p -1.$$ Hence $$(a_i + b_i) + (a'_i + b'_i) = (c_i + c'_i) + p - 1,$$ or $$(a_i + b_i - c_i) + (a'_i + b'_i - c'_i) = p - 1.$$

Now

$$a_i + b_i = c_i + \begin{cases} p & \text{carry required} \\ 0 & \text{no carry required}\end{cases} \ + \begin{cases} -1 & \text{carry required in $i-1$ slot} \\ 0 & \text{no carry required in $i-1$ slot} \end{cases}$$ and the same with $a'_i$, $b'_i$, and $c'_i$.

There is a unique way of writing $p-1$ as a sum of exactly two terms in the set $\{p,0,-1,0\}$. It follows that in the pair of slots $(i,i+k)$, either exactly one of the pairs coming from the $m_i$-coefficient and the $m'_i$ coefficient requires "carrying the one," (It also follows that exactly one of the pairs $m_{i-1}$ and $m'_{i-1}$ (which might be $m'_k$ if $i = 0$) also requires carrying the one, although this is the same statement for $i-1$ instead of $i$. This is why the sum is $p-1$ and not $p$.)

But since exactly one of the pair coming from the $m_i$-coefficient and the $m'_i$ coefficient requires "carrying the one," exactly half the terms have this property, and we are done.

Additional: A weaker version of the induction argument is as follows. By the analog of Fermat's Little Theorem and Euler's Theorem in $W(\mathbf{F}_q)$ ($q = p^k$), one has the identity $$\gamma^{N p^{k-1}} = \gamma^{(q-1)p^{k-1}} \equiv 1 \mod p^k$$ for any $\gamma \in W(\mathbf{F}_q)^{\times}$, that is, any $\gamma \not\equiv 0 \mod p$. It follows that

$$\begin{aligned} B_{m + p^{k-1}} = & \ \sum_{\zeta^i \not\equiv - 1} (1 + \zeta^i)^{mN + N p^{k-1}}\\ \equiv & \ \sum_{\zeta^i \not\equiv - 1} (1 + \zeta^i)^{mN} \mod p^k\\ = & \ B_m \mod p^k, \end{aligned}$$ and so by induction it suffices to show that $B_m \equiv -2 \mod p^k$ for $m = 1, \ldots, p^{k-1}$ rather than $m = 1, \ldots, k$. Since the second step actually proves the congruence $B_m \equiv -2 \mod p^k$ for $m = 1, \ldots, p^k$, this also suffices, and one might find this version of the inductive step slightly easier.

  • As I sift through the proof, I think that this looks good to me, but as I admitted above, I am not familiar with p-adic numbers, though I'm sure a quick tutorial from my professor would be enough, and my knowledge of algebraic number theory is basic . A lot of our work has involved using primitive roots of unity, so I love the approach that you took. After I finish looking over the proof as best as I can, and based upon the number of likes (other validity) I will award the bounty. You may want to also answer the linked question as it's directly related. – Lalaloopsy Aug 28 '18 at 14:03
  • is this an original proof? If not, do you have any references used? I tagged "research", and this would be helpful to use possibly in a future publication and would love to cite this using the cite tag above. – Lalaloopsy Aug 28 '18 at 14:13
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    @Lalaloopsy of course it is original. When I'm bored, I look at math.stackexchange, and I was at the airport, so definitely bored. – Margerie Mumblecrust Aug 28 '18 at 17:32
  • Minor nitpick: In your statements about $A_m$ and $B_m$, you probably want $m > 0$, since otherwise the two definitions you give for $B_m$ disagree for $m = 0$ (since $0^0 \neq 0$). – darij grinberg Aug 28 '18 at 18:51
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    You don't need Witt vectors to prove that $(1 + \zeta^i)^N \equiv 1 \mod p$ in $\mathbb{Z}\left[\zeta\right]$ for any primitive $N$-th root of unity $\zeta$ and any $i$ satisfying $\zeta^i \neq -1$. You can argue as follows: Let $P \in \mathbb{Z}\left[X\right]$ be the polynomial $X^N - 1$ if $N$ is odd, and the polynomial $\left(X^N - 1\right) / \left(X + 1\right)$ if $N$ is even. Then, $P\left(\zeta^i\right) = 0$ by the requirements on $\zeta$ and $i$. Now, we claim that the polynomial $\left(1+X\right)^N - 1$ belongs to the ideal generated ... – darij grinberg Aug 28 '18 at 19:13
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    ... by $p$ and $P$. Once this claim is proven, we will be able to substitute $\zeta^i$ for $X$ and conclude that $\left(1+\zeta^i\right)^n - 1$ is a multiple of $p$ (since $P\left(\zeta^i\right) = 0$), which will conclude our proof. So let us prove the claim. It is clearly sufficient to show that the polynomial $\left(1+X\right)^N - 1 \in \mathbb{F}_p\left[X\right]$ is divisible by $P$ (when regarded as a polynomial in $\mathbb{F}_p\left[X\right]$). To do so, it suffices to prove that the polynomial $\left(X+1\right) \left(\left(1+X\right)^N - 1 \right) \in \mathbb{F}_p\left[X\right]$ is ... – darij grinberg Aug 28 '18 at 19:15
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    ... divisible by $X^N - 1$ (because then, we can cancel out $X+1$, which is coprime to $X^N - 1$ when $N$ is odd and otherwise needs to be divided out of $X^N - 1$). But this is direct: In $\mathbb{F}_p\left[X\right]$, we have $\left(X+1\right) \left(\left(1+X\right)^N - 1\right) = \left(X+1\right)^{N+1} - \left(X+1\right) = X^{N+1} + 1 - \left(X+1\right)$ (where we have used the freshman's dream, since $N+1$ is a power of $p$). This simplifies to $\left(X+1\right) \left(\left(1+X\right)^N - 1\right) = X^{N+1} - X = X\left(X^N - 1\right)$, which is clearly divisible by $X^N - 1$. Now, ... – darij grinberg Aug 28 '18 at 19:18
  • ... I realize that my argument was wrong in the case when $N$ is odd (that is, $p = 2$), and I'm starting to wonder if it's merely a problem with my argument or with the result itself. – darij grinberg Aug 28 '18 at 19:18
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    @darijgrinberg Obviously you don't "need" Witt vectors. I literally only mentioned them because it's shorter than saying "the ring of integers of an unramified extension of $\mathbf{Q}_p$ with residue field $\mathbf{F}_q$." Moreover, the content of the statement consists of the following two points: 1. Any element in $\mathbf{F}^{\times}_q$ satisfies $x^N = 1$, which is obvious, and 2. any element in an unramified extension of $\mathbf{Q}_p$ which is $1$ modulo the maximal ideal is $1 \mod p$, which is also obvious. – Margerie Mumblecrust Aug 28 '18 at 19:45
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    I don't know why you would want to put any effort into removing basic algebraic number theory to give a recherche explicit argument, but chacun son goût I suppose. That said, whatever you are trying to do in the comments above seems dubious. The claim is actually equivalent to saying that $(1+X)^N - 1$ living in the ideal generated by $(p,P)$ where $P$ is any irreducible cyclotomic polynomial dividing $X^N - 1$; asking this to be true for $P$ to equal $X^N - 1$ rather than some irreducible factor is unreasonable. – Margerie Mumblecrust Aug 28 '18 at 19:45
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    @MargerieMumblecrust: In my personal view, the population of readers that understand an argument using Witt vectors and unramified extensions is much smaller than that of readers that understand an argument using basic finite field theory (such as mine). And I don't think what I'm doing is dubious -- you are saying that it proves a bit more than what is necessary; but that doesn't doom it to being false. There is nothing wrong with your answer! – darij grinberg Aug 28 '18 at 19:51
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    Anyway, I see what's going wrong in the case of $N$ odd (that is, $p = 2$): The congruence $(1 + \zeta^i)^N \equiv 1 \mod p$ then fails for $i = 0$. So your argument should also need a tweak for this case (probably not a difficult one). – darij grinberg Aug 28 '18 at 19:52
  • OK, please forgive me another piece of confusion, quite possibly my own. What is the $r$ in $\sum_{\zeta^i \not\equiv -1} ((1 + \zeta^i)^{N} - 1)^k (1 + \zeta^i)^{Nr} \equiv 0 \mod p^k$ ? – darij grinberg Aug 28 '18 at 20:30
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    @darijgrinberg The sum is better written as a sum over $\zeta^i \not\equiv -1 \mod p$. Then, in the $p = 2$ case, one has to additionally note that the extra term $2^N$ can be ignored. I've edited accordingly. – Margerie Mumblecrust Aug 28 '18 at 20:31
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    @darijgrinberg There $r$ is just any non-negative integer. – Margerie Mumblecrust Aug 28 '18 at 20:34
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    @darijgrinberg ps you are doing a good job simulating a persnickety referee, that combined with the very clunky LaTeX compiling which makes making minor edits and checking for typos close to impossible is having a triggering effect. I came here to relax! – Margerie Mumblecrust Aug 28 '18 at 20:44
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    ARGH -- sorry, I'm so used to editing longer posts locally in a text editor (or even SWP when they get really long and formulaic) that I forgot how painful it can be to do that with MO's tools. – darij grinberg Aug 28 '18 at 21:09
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    Very nice piece of math, enjoy the bounty! Though I must say you lost me on the fraction fields of Witt vectors, but I guess that is a good thing (new stuff to learn). – Sil Aug 29 '18 at 06:48
  • @MargerieMumblecrust I have a (probably basic...) question about $B_m$. You state its equivalent to $-2$ mod $N+1=p^k$. The paragraph below is then you taking cases for the value of $p$, both even and odd. The sum basically removes the $0\equiv 2^N$ terms in both cases and because of the nature of modulo p and this allows, since the roots of unity are unique mod p, to speak of the sum in mod $p^k$? – Lalaloopsy Aug 30 '18 at 14:43
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    @Lalaloopsy: The trick is that you work in the ring $\mathbb{Z}\left[\zeta\right]$, thus showing that $B_m \equiv 2 \mod p^k$ in this ring. But this yields that $\left(B_m - 2\right) / p^k$ is an element of $\mathbb{Z}\left[\zeta\right]$, hence an algebraic integer. Since $\left(B_m - 2\right) / p^k$ is also a rational number, we thus conclude that $\left(B_m - 2\right) / p^k$ is an integer (since a rational number can only be an algebraic integer if it is an integer). – darij grinberg Aug 30 '18 at 21:32
  • The argument using Kummer's theorem and $p$-representations makes me nervous: it doesn't account for carry-overs from previous additions. Is this a non-issue? Can one ignore the carry-overs in Kummer's theorem in general, instead treating each "column" separately? – darij grinberg Aug 30 '18 at 23:08
  • @darijgrinberg, thank you for the clarification. That helped. As far as your second comment, I can not comment. As I 've stated, I'm not overly familiar with the p-representations, so you will probably have to ask Margerie MumbleCrust for clarification. Might be accused of being "persnickety" but i must say that made me laugh. – Lalaloopsy Aug 30 '18 at 23:34
  • @darijgrinberg --- it does account for carry-overs in previous columns! Exactly one of slot $i-1$ and $(i-1)+k$ has a carry, which is why, for slot $i$ and $i+k$, the sum of the pairs is $p-1$ rather than $p$! (You don't have to prove this by induction --- you can read off from the equality that there's exactly one carry in slot $i$ and exactly one carry in slot $i-1$ from the same equation.) That was supposed to be clear, but I guess not :( I added some clarification. – Margerie Mumblecrust Aug 31 '18 at 12:04
  • @darijgrinberg To be fair, my nickname in IMO days was "Mr 6." – Margerie Mumblecrust Aug 31 '18 at 12:07
  • @darijgrinberg: An alternative would also be to talk about valuations of factorials in terms of digits sums --- if $s_p(x)$ denotes the sums of the $p$-adic digits, then the valuation we want to compute is $s_p(Nc) - s_p(Na) - s_p(Nb)$ divided by $p-1$, as follows from the usual description of $v_p(n!)$ in terms of $s_p(n)$. Then the equalities transparently show that this sum is $k(p-1)$, which, when divided by $(p-1)$, obviously gives $k$. – Margerie Mumblecrust Aug 31 '18 at 12:31
  • Ah, thanks! This is a subtler argument than I had expected. I'm wondering whether you're in the mood for generalizing. Your claim reminds me of "Theorem Q" in arXiv:1510.06696v5, where the $q$ plays the role of your $N$; but only the $k = 1$ case is covered by that theorem. So maybe there is a way to combine the two directions and get a common generalization (where the $p \equiv 1 \mod q$ condition is replaced by $p^k \equiv 1 \mod q$)? – darij grinberg Aug 31 '18 at 19:21
  • As for the proof of the original statement, I still don't fully understand what $r$ is -- it seems to me that when you expand the $\left(\left(1+\zeta^i\right)^N - 1\right)^k$, each term will use a different value of $r$. But your "weaker version of the induction argument" makes this a moot point -- it's simpler anyway. – darij grinberg Aug 31 '18 at 19:26
  • Let's make your "weaker version of the induction argument" shorter. At its core is the claim that $\left(1 + \zeta^i\right)^{mN+Np^{k-1}} \equiv \left(1 + \zeta^i\right)^{mN} \mod p^k$ for each $i \in \mathbb{Z}$ and $m > 0$ (we don't need to require $\zeta^i \not\equiv -1$ here). This will follow from the congruence $\left(1 + \zeta^i\right)^{p^{k-1}+Np^{k-1}} \equiv \left(1 + \zeta^i\right)^{p^{k-1}} \mod p^k$, because $mN \geq N = p^k - 1 \geq p^{k-1}$. But the latter congruence rewrites ... – darij grinberg Aug 31 '18 at 19:38
  • ... as $\left(1 + \zeta^i\right)^{\left(N+1\right)p^{k-1}} \equiv \left(1 + \zeta^i\right)^{p^{k-1}} \mod p^k$, which clearly follows by the standard lifting-the-exponent lemma from the congruence $\left(1 + \zeta^i\right)^{N+1} \equiv 1 + \zeta^i \mod p$. Finally, why does the latter congruence hold? Because $N + 1 = p^k$ and thus $\left(1 + \zeta^i\right)^{N+1} = \left(1 + \zeta^i\right)^{p^k} \equiv 1^{p^k} + \left(\zeta^i\right)^{p^k} = 1 + \zeta^{i p^k} = 1 + \zeta^i \mod p$ (since $\zeta^i$ is a $p^k-1$-st root of unity). – darij grinberg Aug 31 '18 at 19:40
  • @darijgrinberg: $$\begin{aligned} & \ \sum_{\zeta^i \not\equiv 1} ((1 + \zeta^i)^N - 1)^k (1 + \zeta^i)^{Nr} \ = & \ \sum_{\zeta^i \not\equiv 1} \sum_{j=0}^{k} \binom{k}{j} (-1)^{k-j} (1 + \zeta^i)^{Nj+Nr} \ = & \ \sum_{j=0}^{k} \binom{k}{j} (-1)^{k-j} \sum_{\zeta^i \not\equiv 1} (1 + \zeta^i)^{Nj+Nr} \ = & \ \sum_{j=0}^{k} \binom{k}{j} (-1)^{k-j} B_{j+r}. \end{aligned} $$ So (taking $r = n$ and multiplying by $(-1)^n$, $$B_{n + k} = \sum_{j=0}^{k} \binom{k}{j} (-1)^j B_{n + j}.$$ – Margerie Mumblecrust Aug 31 '18 at 22:07
  • Or, in other words, "expanding out" should say "expanding out, then randomly swapping variables names and using $r$ again in a different way from the previous line." Sort of like writing that $f(x) = (1-x) \sum_{r=0}^{k-1} x^r$ thus $f'(r) = - k r^{k-1}$. – Margerie Mumblecrust Aug 31 '18 at 22:10
  • Ah, I see now! (Of course, some of the $=$ signs are actually $\equiv \mod p^k$.) – darij grinberg Aug 31 '18 at 22:15
  • Meanwhile, I have thought more about your claim on the $p$-adic valuation of $\dbinom{N\left(a+b\right)}{Na}$, still surprised by the apparent nontriviality of its proof. I've realized that it can also be derived from the following neat fact (which follows from Legendre's formula): For any $c \in \left{1,2,\ldots,p^k\right}$, the $p$-adic valuation of $\left(Nc\right)!$ is $c\left(p^0+p^1+\cdots+p^{k-1}\right)-k$. This is not hard to see (the proof involves a similar pairing as yours), but I'm seeing it for the first time! – darij grinberg Aug 31 '18 at 22:17
  • This makes me wonder what the $p$-Sylow subgroups of the symmetric group $S_{\left(p^k-1\right)c}$ are. – darij grinberg Aug 31 '18 at 22:27
  • This problem is a gift that keeps on giving. Here is another proof of my claim about the $p$-adic valuation of $\left(Nc\right)!$: Let $v_p\left(m\right)$ denote the $p$-adic valuation of an integer $m$. Step 1: Show that $\dbinom{p^k c - 1}{c - 1} \equiv \left(-1\right)^{c-1} \mod p$ for any positive integer $c \leq p^k$. (This is easy using Lucas's theorem.) Step 2: Use Step 1 and the formula $\dbinom{p^k c}{c} = p^k \cdot \dbinom{p^k c - 1}{c - 1}$ to conclude that $v_p\left( \dbinom{p^k c}{c} \right) = k$ for any positive integer $c \leq p^k$. Step 3: Recall that ... – darij grinberg Aug 31 '18 at 22:46
  • ... we have $\dbinom{p^k c}{c} = \left(p^k c\right)! / \left(c! \left(Nc\right)!\right)$, and thus the result of Step 2 can be rewritten as $v_p\left( \left(p^k c\right)! \right) - v_p\left( c! \right) - v_p\left( \left(N c\right)! \right) = k$ for any positive integer $c \leq p^k$. Step 4: Use Legendre's formula to show that $v_p\left( \left(p^k c\right)! \right) - v_p\left( c! \right) = c \left( p^0 + p^1 + \cdots + p^{k-1} \right)$, and thus the ... – darij grinberg Aug 31 '18 at 22:48
  • ... result of Step 3 simplifies to $c \left( p^0 + p^1 + \cdots + p^{k-1} \right) - v_p\left( \left(N c\right)! \right) = k$ for any positive integer $c \leq p^k$. But this is equivalent to $v_p\left( \left(N c\right)! \right) = c \left( p^0 + p^1 + \cdots + p^{k-1} \right) - k$. – darij grinberg Aug 31 '18 at 22:48
  • I thought that there should be some "natural" free action of $\mathbf{Z}/p^n \mathbf{Z}$ on sets of subsets of $N(a+b)$ of size $Na$, but I don't see one. (Comment deleted and posted again so as not to be in the middle of your comments). – Margerie Mumblecrust Aug 31 '18 at 22:49
  • @darijgrinberg Yes I agree there is something elementary enough about this problem (at least the part concerning binomial coefficients) which suggests it should have been noticed before --- indeed the precise lemma might even be plausible as some sort of contest problem. And yet, it still feels unfamiliar to me. – Margerie Mumblecrust Aug 31 '18 at 22:54
  • PS. This is awkward but I don't remember "Mr. 6" -- not under this name, that is... – darij grinberg Aug 31 '18 at 22:54
  • Now I realize we can completely get rid of all non-elementary number theory. Let $\mathfrak{A}$ be the ring of $N \times N$-matrices over $\mathbb{Z}$. Let $C \in \mathfrak{A}$ be the permutation matrix of the $N$-cycle $\left(1,2,\ldots,N\right)$ (in cycle notation). Then, the $\left(1,1\right)$-th entry of $\left(I_N+C\right)^m$ is $A_m$ for any $m \geq 0$. Thus, we want to show that $\left(I_N+C\right)^{m+p^{k-1}} \equiv \left(I_N+C\right)^m \mod p^k \mathfrak{A}$ for any $m > 0$. (This will ... – darij grinberg Aug 31 '18 at 22:58
  • ... then yield $A_{m+p^{k-1}} \equiv A_m \mod p^k$, which will reduce the original problem to the case of $m \leq p^{k-1}$ as before.) How do we show this? Essentially as in my above comments, with $\zeta^i$ replaced by $C$ (and $1+\zeta^i$ by $I_N+C$). So it boils down to showing that $\left(I_N + C\right)^{N+1} \equiv I_N + C \mod p \mathfrak{A}$; but this again follows from the freshman's dream along with the fact that $C^N = I_N$. Oh, and we were able to use the lifting-the-exponent lemma because we're working in a commutative subring of $\mathfrak{A}$ (the one generated by $C$). – darij grinberg Aug 31 '18 at 23:01
  • Any interest in writing this up for (say) the Monthly or Integers? This is also @Lalaloopsy of course. – darij grinberg Aug 31 '18 at 23:02
  • Oh I didn't mean to say we had met or that you should recognize that name (different generations, different countries), but merely that it was a name given to me by some graders in my own country who felt I had a tendency to be sloppy on my answers... Some of the people who review my papers today seem to have the same attitude, unfortunately. – Margerie Mumblecrust Aug 31 '18 at 23:03
  • Oh, I didn't realize the 6 stands for a 6/7 :) – darij grinberg Aug 31 '18 at 23:04
  • I'm happy for any ideas used here to be adapted by anyone in any form, providing that "Margerie Mumblecrust" is adequately thanked (but isn't this a summer project of the OP??). I would have to decline any involvement in actually writing a paper for some weighted combination of the following reasons: 1. I'm very busy, 2. I'm a snob (see previous comments), 3. I'm a troll (see username). I do, however, promise to say hello if I ever give a talk at UMN and you happen to be there. – Margerie Mumblecrust Aug 31 '18 at 23:26
  • ps. Your final induction looks good (maybe $A_m$ is the coefficient in $(1+C)^{mN}$ rather than $(1+C)^m$, but that's clear from the argument.) – Margerie Mumblecrust Aug 31 '18 at 23:27
  • wow! you guys were hard at work here! Thank you for all your contributions and help here. – Lalaloopsy Sep 01 '18 at 13:19
  • Ah, you are right about the typo in my coefficient, thanks. A bunch of $N$'s are missing. – darij grinberg Sep 01 '18 at 13:31