So you have seen that $I \subset IR \cap \mathbb Z$, and are confused about the other way.
The point is, note that every ideal of $\mathbb Z$ is of the form $n \mathbb Z = \{nz : z \in \Bbb Z\}$. So, write $I = n\Bbb Z$.
Now, let $x \in IR \cap \mathbb Z$. Clearly, $x$ is an integer. Furthermore, note that $x = ir$ for some $i \in I, r \in R$. We know what $I,R$ are : this helps us conclude that $i = jn$ for some integer $j$ and $r = d + e\alpha + f \alpha^2$ for integers $d,e,f$.
Thus, $x = jnd + jne\alpha + jnf\alpha^2$. Transposing $x$ to the other side, $jnf \alpha^2 + jne\alpha + jnd - x = 0$. So $\alpha$ satisfies a polynomial of degree smaller than $3$ with integer coefficients. This polynomial must be a factor of $x^3 +2$, but that is irreducible, so this cannot happen. Consequently, the above polynomial must be zero. That is, all the coefficients are zero : $jnf = 0$,$jne = 0$ and ,more importantly, $jnd - x = 0$ or $x = jnd$, that is $x \in I$. Hence, the first part is complete.
For the second part, we know $0 \in J \cap \mathbb Z$, but let us make it stronger. Let $p(x)$ be a non-zero polynomial such that $p(\alpha) \in J$. Since $\alpha^3 = 2$, we can assume $1 \leq \deg p \leq 2$ (if $\deg p = 0$ then $p$ is a non-zero constant, so we are done). Now, using the division algorithm, write $x^3 + 2 = p(x)q(x) + r(x)$, where $r(x)$ has degree less than $p(x)$, and is non-zero because $x^3 + 2$ is irreducible. Substituting $\alpha$, we get $0 = p(\alpha) q(\alpha) + r(\alpha)$. Thus, $r(\alpha) = p(\alpha) \times -q(\alpha) \in J$.
Now, $\deg p = 1 \implies \deg r = 0$ so $J$ contains a non-zero constant.
Now, if $\deg p = 2$ then either $\deg r = 0$,whence we are done, or $\deg r = 1$, whence we replace $p$ by $r$ in the paragraph above to get the conclusion. Either way, $J$ contains a non-zero constant, so $J \cap \mathbb Z$ is a set which contains more elements than just zero. In fact, let $n$ be the smallest non-zero positive integer contained in $J \cap \Bbb Z$. Of course, for any $m$, we have $nm \in J \cap \Bbb Z$. However, if using division algorithm , $m = nq + r \in J \cap \mathbb Z$, then $r \in J \cap \mathbb Z$ and $r < n$, contradiction. Consequently, $J \cap \mathbb Z = n\mathbb Z$ with $n$ as above.
Let $J$ be a prime ideal of $R$. Then, $\frac RJ$ is an integral domain. Now, note that $J \cap \mathbb Z = n \mathbb Z$, so therefore, $(n \mathbb Z) R \subset JR = J$. Therefore, it also follows that $\frac RJ \subset \frac R{(n \mathbb Z) R}$ (the latter is the quotient of $R$ by the ideal generated by the constant polynomial $n$ in $R$).
Now, define the map $R \to \left(\frac{\mathbb Z}{n\mathbb Z}\right)^3$ by $a\alpha^2 + b\alpha+c \to ([a],[b],[c])$, where $[x]$ denotes remainder of $x$ when divided by $n$. Clearly, $(n \mathbb Z)R$ is the kernel of this map, so it follows that the cardinality of $\frac R{(n \mathbb Z)}$ is finite, since it is less than or equal to $n^3$ (infact, it is equal, you can see surjectivity of the map easily). Finally, it follows that $\frac RJ$ is a finite integral domain, and these are known to be fields (the popular pigeonhole argument). Consequently, $\frac RJ$ is a field, so $J$ is maximal.