To solve a fluid diffusion problem, I need to calculate an inverse Laplace transform. The integral, according to the Inverse Laplace theorem, has the form: \begin{equation} \label{i_laplace_1} p(r,t) = \frac{p_{c}}{2\pi i}\lim_{n \rightarrow \infty}\int_{1-i\beta_{n}}^{1+i\beta_{n}}\frac{e^{st}}{s}\frac{K_{0}(\sqrt{\frac{s}{\kappa}} r)}{K_{0}(\sqrt{\frac{s}{\kappa}} a)} d s \end{equation} where $p_{c},r,a$ can be seen as constants. I choose a contour as in attached Figure 1 to avoid the branch point $z=0$ during the computation. The integral is then instead calculated on the contour including $C_{R},C_{\rho},\Gamma_{1},\Gamma_{2}$. On $C_{\rho}$, in several textbooks and papers I saw an approximation as followed: \begin{equation} \label{i_laplace_form} \lim_{\rho \rightarrow 0}\int_{C_{\rho}} \frac{e^{st}}{s}\frac{K_{0}(\sqrt{\frac{s}{\kappa}} r)}{K_{0}(\sqrt{\frac{s}{\kappa}} a)} ds \approx \lim_{\rho \rightarrow 0}\int_{C_{\rho}} \frac{e^{st}}{s} d s = 2\pi i \end{equation} However, I still do not fully understand how good is such an approximation and whether it is mathematically rigorous. Can you give me some insightful discussion?
Asked
Active
Viewed 392 times
My concern in this step is, as a real-valued function, $K_0(x)$ converges to $−ln(x)$, which blows up as $x \rightarrow 0$. However, in the complex plane, such a function is multi-valued, and even though defined in a branch cut, $z = 0$ is still a branch point, so I doubt that an asymptotic behavior of $K_0$ around that point exists.
– Hoang Nguyen Aug 08 '18 at 19:03