A lagrangian $L(q,\dot q, t)$ is invariant under the point transformation $$q_i=q_i(s_1,...,s_n,t)$$
To prove this I show that
$$\frac{d}{dt} \frac{\partial L}{\partial \dot s_i} - \frac{\partial L}{\partial s_i} = 0$$
where
$$\frac{\partial L}{\partial s_i} = \frac{\partial L}{\partial q_j}\frac{\partial q_j}{\partial s_i}$$
$$\frac{\partial L}{\partial \dot s_i} = \frac{\partial L}{\partial \dot q_j}\frac{\partial \dot q_j}{\partial \dot s_i}$$
$$\frac{\partial \dot q_j}{\partial \dot s_i}= \frac{\partial q_j}{\partial s_i}$$
which gives $$\frac{d}{dt} \left(\frac{\partial L}{\partial \dot q_j}\frac{\partial q_j}{\partial s_i} \right) - \frac{\partial L}{\partial q_j}\frac{\partial q_j}{\partial s_i} = 0$$
but in order to get into the form $$\left(\frac{d}{dt} \frac{\partial L}{\partial \dot q_j} - \frac{\partial L}{\partial q_j}\right)\frac{\partial q_j}{\partial s_i} = 0$$
I need to prove that $$\frac{d}{dt} \left(\frac{\partial L}{\partial \dot q_j}\frac{\partial q_j}{\partial s_i} \right) = \frac{d}{dt} \left(\frac{\partial L}{\partial \dot q_j}\right)\frac{\partial q_j}{\partial s_i} $$
What is the logic behind this? Any help would be greatly appreciated!
It should be $$ \frac{\partial L}{\partial s_i} = \frac{\partial L}{\partial q_j}\frac{\partial q_j}{\partial s_i}
$$
– md2perpe Jul 23 '18 at 20:03