Assuming my world is made up of 100 distinct states such that:
$$S = (s1, s2, s3, ... s100)$$
Let's call the number of states 'K'.
And assuming that I perform N trials, wherein each trial I visit one of the states in S randomly, with replacement.
What is the probability that I visit all states at least once in N successive independent trials?
Here's what I have so far: The probability of visiting all states at least once is the inverse of the probability of never visiting a particular state, for each state $s_i$.
$$P(S_{once}) = N * (1 - P(s_i))^{N}$$
However, the math shows I am wrong here. Assuming N = 200, In this example, this works out to: $$P(S_{once}) = 200 * (1 - \frac{1}{100})^{200}$$
Clearly, this seems wrong. For one thing, the probability is greater than 1 at the end of this exercise. My guess is I am assuming some independence here which does not hold true. Can you help me come up with the right formula here, assuming there is one?
Update
I made an error in translating my words to formula:
The probability of visiting all states at least once is the inverse of the probability of never visiting a particular state, for each state $s_i$
This should be represented by the formula: $$P(S_{once}) = K * (1 - P(s_i))^{N}$$
Answer
Thanks to the comments pointing me to the Coupon Collector problem, I have my answer now.
The number of trials T required to visit all K states is:
$$ T = K * \sum_{i=1}^K\frac{1}{i} $$
This is approximately equal to $K ln K$
Reference:https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=3mu47FWEuqA
Note: The video has a typo on the final formula, the summation is from 1 to K (not K-1).
$$ \def\stir#1#2{\left{#1\atop#2\right}} P(N\le n)=\frac{m!}{m^n}\stir nm;. $$
In your case, $m=100$ and $n=N$, so this is
$$ \frac{100!}{100^N}\stir N{100};. $$
– joriki Jul 19 '18 at 09:54