Identify whether true or false:
If $f(x)=(x-1)\{x\}$, where $\{x\}$ denotes the fractional part of $x$, the limit of $f(x)$ does not exist at all integers.
This is how I went about it:
The limit of $f(x)$ exists for $x=1$. However, it doesn't exist for any other integers. So, it doesn't exist for $2$, doesn't exist for $3$, etc.
Hence, the limit doesn't exist for all integers. The statement is true.
Here's how my teacher went about it:
The limit of $f(x)$ exists for $x=1$. However, it doesn't exist for any other integers. Hence, it exists for a single integer, i.e. not all integers. Hence, the statement is false.
Which interpretation is correct and which one is wrong (as there can only be one answer)?