The answer is yes. The proof of this fact relies on the following lemma:
Let $E \subset \mathbb{R}^n$ be measurable, and $1<p<\infty$. Then the function $\phi_p(u) = |u|^{p-1} u$ defines a homeomorphism from $L^p(E)$ to $L^1(E)$. Moreover, $\forall u,v \in L^p(E)$:
$$
2^{1-p} \|u-v\|_p^p \leq \|\phi_p(u) - \phi_p(v)\|_1 \leq p (\|u\|_p+\|v\|_p)^{p-1} \|u-v\|_p
$$
This lemma follows from exercises 46-48 of Royden & Fitzpatrick's Real Analysis (4th edition), p.154 (end of chapter 7).
The result follows easily from here. Since the ${f_m}^r$ and $f^r$ are in $L^{\frac{p}{r}}$, we use the left inequality with the value $p/r$ to get:
$$
2^{1-\frac{p}{r}} {\|{f_m}^r - f^r \|_{\frac{p}{r}}}^{\frac{p}{r}}
\leq
\| \phi_{\frac{p}{r}}({f_m}^r) - \phi_{\frac{p}{r}}(f^r) \|_1
=
\| {f_m}^p - f^p \|_1
$$
Then we use the right inequality with the value $p$ to get:
$$
\|{f_m}^p - f^p\|_1
=
\| \phi_p(f_m) - \phi_p(f) \|_1
\leq
p (\|f_m\|_p+\|f\|_p)^{p-1} \|f_m-f\|_p
$$
Finally, since $f_m \rightarrow f$ in $L^p$, we can bound $\|f_m\|_p$ uniformly. Putting this together with the inequalities above, we conclude that there are constants $C_1, C_2 > 0$ such that:
$$
C_1 {\|{f_m}^r - f^r \|_{\frac{p}{r}}}^{\frac{p}{r}}
\leq
C_2 \|f_m-f\|_p
$$
So, as $m \rightarrow \infty$, we know by assumption that the right-hand side goes to $0$, and it is clear that this implies that the left-hand side goes to $0$. Hence ${f_m}^r \rightarrow f^r$ in $L^{\frac{p}{r}}$.