$\ell_0$ space contains all infinite sequence which only has finite nonzero terms. Could anyone tell me whether it is a Banach space? Is it possible for us to find a Cauchy convergent series which is not convergent in this space?
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The answer is no. – Jose27 Jun 27 '18 at 17:38
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2You should probably say what norm you are considering. If it is sup-norm, there are probably already several questions about this on this site. For example, I was able to quickly find: Prove that $(S,|.|_\infty)$ is not complete.. As mentioned in one of the answer, if you want to show that this space will not be complete no matter what nor you chose, then you use the fact that it has infinite countable basis. – Martin Sleziak Jul 01 '18 at 11:46
3 Answers
Notice that $\dim \ell_0 = \aleph_0$.
It is known that the algebraic dimension of any infinite-dimensional Banach space is uncountable.
Therefore $\ell_0$ cannot be a Banach space with respect to any norm.

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Your vector space has Hamel dimension $\aleph_0$. Every infinite-dimensional Banach space has Hamel dimension ${}\ge 2^{\aleph_0}$. So there is no norm on your vector space making it a Banach space. See Let $X$ be an infinite dimensional Banach space. Prove that every Hamel basis of X is uncountable.

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It depends from the norm that you are fixing on it. For example you have that $l_0\subset l^\infty$ and so you can consider on $l^0$ the norm induced by $l^\infty$. In this norm the space cannot be a Banach space because $l^\infty$ is a Banach Space and so every his subset is a Banach Space (with respect to the norm induced by it) if and only if is closed in $l^\infty$ but in our case the subset $l_0$ is not closed in $l^\infty$ because for example if you define $x_n(i):=0$ if $i>n$ and $\frac{1}{i}$ otherwise than the succession $\{x_n\}_n\subset l_0$ it is convergent to $x(i)=\frac{1}{i}$ in $l^\infty$ that is not in $l_0$.
Now you can think to find a $p \geq 1$ such that $l_0$ is closed in $l^p$ (oviously you have always that $l_0\subset l^p$ ) because $l^p$ is a Banach Space and so $l_0$ is a Banach Space (with respect to the norm induced by $l^p$) but it is always false. Infact for any $p\geq 1$ you can define $x_n(i)=0$ if $i>n$ and $\frac{1}{i^2}$ otherwise. In this case you have that the sequence $\{x_n\}_n\subset l_0$ is convergent in $l^p$ norm to $x(i)=\frac{1}{i^2}$ that is not in $l_0$
You can prove that is not possible fix a norm on $l_0$ such that it is a Banach Space with respect to that norm because every Banach Space has Hamel dimension at least $2^{\aleph_0}$

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Could I also ask why we only choose $p \geq 1$? I am not quite familiar with it. – coolcat Jun 27 '18 at 19:05
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I was referring to the usual spaces $l^p$ in which we choose $p\geq 1$ – Federico Fallucca Jun 27 '18 at 19:10
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