I am currently self-studying real analysis using Rudin's book. Rudin defines Riemann integrability as follows:
Let $f: [a,b]\rightarrow \mathbb{R}$, and let $P$ be a partition of $[a,b]$. Then $f$ is Riemann integrable on $[a,b]$ if $\inf U(P,f) = \sup L(P,f)$, where $U(P,f)$ and $L(P,f)$ denote the upper and lower Darboux sums of $f$ (with respect to the partition P), respectively, and the $\sup$ and $\inf$ are taken over all partitions $P$.
The following is a statement that I assumed to be true when I took calculus, but now I am not so sure:
Let $f$ be Riemann integrable on $[a,b]$. Given a partition $P$ of $[a,b]$, let $\left\| P \right\|$ denote the norm of $P$ (i.e. the length of the longest segment in $P$). Is it then true that as $\left\| P \right\| \rightarrow 0$, $U(P,f)-L(P,f)\rightarrow 0$? That is, is it true that for any $\epsilon>0$, there exists $\delta>0$ such that $\left\| P \right\|<\delta \Rightarrow U(P,f)-L(P,f)<\epsilon$?
It is easy to show that this result holds when $f$ is continuous on $[a,b]$, but I'm not sure if it holds for all Riemann integrable functions.