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A purported existence of a standard model of such theory as ZFC has been a cause of discomfort for a number of experts. I interpret Joel David Hamkins's development of his multiverse approach as a way of mitigating the necessity for such ontological commitments (he himself seems to disagree).

Taking a strong Platonist view of entities and their collections, etc., in a standard model of set theory such as ZFC as literally existing somewhere in the realm of the abstracta, one quickly reaches an inconsistency.

This is because, if sets, their power sets, etc., correspond to entities literally out there in the Platonist realm of the abstracta, and union (as governed by ZFC axioms) is merely the concatenation of such abstracta, then the entire arsenal is literally out there, which is of course inconsistent since "the set of all sets" cannot be a set in ZFC, as is well known.

The question is whether weaker Platonist and/or realist assumptions about sets in a putative standard model can be developed that would lead to an inconsistency in a subtler fashion?

More specifically: what kind of naive realist intuitions of sets do beginning students of set theory have that need to be rejected to avoid inconsistency?

Mikhail Katz
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    Are you planning on disclosing your personal relationship with Jaykov Foukzon? – Asaf Karagila Jun 02 '18 at 18:27
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    I don't understand the first paragraph, it is way too informal. Can you try to elaborate more precisely what the purported issues are? – Andrés E. Caicedo Jun 02 '18 at 19:17
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    @Andrés: Just in case you missed it, Mikhail asked on MathOverflow recently a question where he asks if one of the recent "papers" by Jaykov Foukzon about the inconsistency of ZFC+"There exists a standard model" is a serious paper, since it was published in a "peer reviewed journal". Of course having received a tenured position, one can only imagine that Mikhail had the tools to make these assessments on his own, and chose to do this in some failed attempt to get more mainstream attention to the paper. (I say failed since it was closed and deleted, of course.) – Asaf Karagila Jun 02 '18 at 19:45
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    What does "literally existing" mean in this context? How would we be certain or not about existence of these objects? What would constitute evidence for or against existence? – Somos Jun 02 '18 at 20:13
  • HI @AndrésE.Caicedo, I tried to clarify the issue (with the strong Platonist view, of course). – Mikhail Katz Jun 03 '18 at 08:48
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    If the relation to the Jaykov Foukzon paper is relevant context it should be included or at least mentioned. (If it is not, then not.) At the moment it seems to me it is, but I have no fixed opinion on this, as the situation is not exactly clear to me. I invite everybody that wants to discuss this to our office: https://chat.stackexchange.com/rooms/20352/math-mods-office (cc @Asaf ) // I removed some comments that seemed tangential. – quid Jun 03 '18 at 10:03
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    I'm afraid I still don't see what the problem is; I'll probably need a significantly more detailed explanation of the problem. I don't see why anybody would mention "the set of all sets", for instance, and conclude that there is a problem. At the moment, it feels like saying "imagine all natual numbers, with their relations. If we imagine all, then we also imagine their fractions. A contradiction, since $1/2$ is not a natural number." I suspect you mean something more serious. Is there a more nuanced argument you have in mind that are perhaps compressing too much in your presentation here? – Andrés E. Caicedo Jun 03 '18 at 12:16
  • @AndrésE.Caicedo, there is no operation of "inverse" in the natural numbers and therefore there is no reason to expect $\frac12$ to be a natural number. On the other hand, in naive set theory there is obviously an idea of concatenation, and if the entities involved are taken to be literally out there, naively there is no apriori reason to block us from taking the concatenation of everything out there. The standard technical gimmick is to declare that such a totality does not exist (or is a class), but such an attitude is incomprehensible from a naive platonist viewpoint... – Mikhail Katz Jun 03 '18 at 12:42
  • ...Of course I am not arguing in favor of the naive platonist viewpoint; I am merely pointing out that it is at tension with the spectrum of options available in set-theoretic formalisations such as ZFC (which contains no contradictions that I know of :-) )... – Mikhail Katz Jun 03 '18 at 12:44
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    I requested that further discussion of these comments takes place in the Math Mods' office. Thus I removed your reply here. – quid Jun 03 '18 at 13:26
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    I think your platonist's naivete is the hardest thing to believe here. A more nuanced argument by a less implausible platonist seems in order if you expect any serious answers. – Andrés E. Caicedo Jun 03 '18 at 14:20
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    @AndrésE.Caicedo, in my experience students (those who don't specialize in set theory, that is) often find it hard to understand why something that can be defined turns out not to be a set. The set/class distinction may be second nature to specialists in set theory, but from the viewpoint of naive set theory (which is that of most undergraduates) the distinction is very puzzling. Such student attitudes are not hard to believe and on the contrary are very common. – Mikhail Katz Jun 03 '18 at 16:00
  • @AndrésE.Caicedo, a nice illlustration of how difficult it is for users to break away from realist conceptions of sets can be found here. – Mikhail Katz Jun 03 '18 at 16:06
  • Hamkins has claimed that the multiverse perspective is a realist perspective, for example "The multiverse view is one of higher-order realism—Platonism about universes— and I defend it as a realist position asserting actual existence of the alternative set theoretic universes into which our mathematical tools have allowed us to glimpse." from p. 2 of https://arxiv.org/pdf/1108.4223.pdf . Also see http://jdh.hamkins.org/pluralism-in-mathematics-the-multiverse-view-in-set-theory-and-the-question-of-whether-every-mathematical-statement-has-a-definite-truth-value-rutgers-march-2013/ – Carl Mummert Jun 03 '18 at 22:32
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    A quote from one or two of the experts that the question refers to, explaining their precise discomfort, might help clarify the question. As it stands, the question seems to argue "Russell's paradox shows there is no standard model of set theory" - a claim which has been written about for over 100 years now. The various aspects of that argument seem to be reasonably well understood at this point in time, particularly the role of the cumulative hierarchy. – Carl Mummert Jun 03 '18 at 22:39
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    It seems to me that the first paragraph is not an accurate description of my multiverse views; at least, I don't recognize my views there. I don't believe that I have "discomfort" with the existence of a standard model of set theory, as a set-theoretic principle, and indeed, I am fond of various large cardinal axioms, which imply the existence of transitive models of ZFC. In this sense, I seem to be comfortable with the assertion that there is a standard model of set theory. My multiverse perspective does not arise from an attempt to "mitigate...such ontological commitments." – JDH Jun 04 '18 at 00:05
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    Rather, my multiverse views arise from the recognition that the tools of set theory in effect allow us to define many different inequivalent concepts of set, each giving rise to their own set-theoretic universe, that we have no principled way to find any them privileged, and that we seem to have little reason to believe in any absolute background concept of well-foundedness. The way I see it, part of what set theory is about, as a foundational theory, is exploring how the various set theoretic concepts are related to one another. In practice, this amounts to studying the models of set theory. – JDH Jun 04 '18 at 00:06
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    Hi Joel David, thanks for your interesting comments. I wouldn't want to misrepresent your views so I removed the remarks concerning the multiverse as soon as I read your reservations about them. Notice however that I was taking about naive platonist views concerning sets, rather than sophisticated realist attitudes toward the multiverse which are obviously an entirely different genre. I would assume that very few students of mathematics have naive platonist views of the multiverse. If they have any views such views concern sets in a unique universe, rather than modular notions of sets.. @JDH – Mikhail Katz Jun 04 '18 at 08:39
  • ...in a multiverse. – Mikhail Katz Jun 04 '18 at 08:40
  • Carl, the purpose of my question was not to detail the problems with the naive view concerning the set of all sets, which as you correctly point out are not much of a novelty. Rather, it was to ask for subtler inconsistencies possibly arising from less blatant platonist/realist views. If there are none, then there is no interesting answer to my question. However this is not obvious to me; possibly other set-theoretic paradoxes (Burali-Forti, etc.) could result from less blatantly platonist views about sets. Asa you are well aware @CarlMummert – Mikhail Katz Jun 04 '18 at 08:44
  • ... my scepticism about standard model/intended interpretation well predates the problematic article mentioned earlier in the comments. @CarlMummert – Mikhail Katz Jun 04 '18 at 11:01
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    I am not very concerned with the other article, but I would be interested in concrete examples of contemporary experts in set theory who explain how the kind of argument in the post causes them discomfort. My sense is the Russell's paradox is well understood, with the usual Platonistic shift being to define "set" as "member of a cumulative hierarchy" rather than "definable collection". I don't want to argue for or against that shift, but it is certainly well understood by experts as a way to prevent "standard model" from being immediately paradoxical. – Carl Mummert Jun 04 '18 at 13:51
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    @CarlMummert, from discussions with a number of my colleagues who are experts in the field, it emerges clearly that they would never use terms like "intended model" etc. in their work, and don't share the philosophical assumptions behind the use of such terminology. And again, the issue here is not the mathematical consistency of such a model but rather milder "naive realist" assumptions that would still lead to inconsistency though in a subtler way. You don't have to convince me that the cumulative hierarchy is a coherent way of addressing the difficulty with naive set theory :-) – Mikhail Katz Jun 04 '18 at 14:08
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    Yes, there is a problem there, and an essential one, that is the confusion of a set for a mereological aggregate of its elements. It is clear that a set is NOT the mereological aggregate of its elements, since if it is then there would be no empty set, and the singleton would always be identical with its element, this issue had been mentioned long ago by Bertrand Russell in his introduction of mathematical philosophy, and I think even before him. In head post is explicitly thinking of Unions as "concatenations", and this is exactly the same intuitive error ...(see next comment) – Zuhair Jun 13 '18 at 09:49
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    that I'm speaking about here. Intuitively speaking there would be a mereological aggregate of all elements of elements of a set, this would be the union aggregate of that set, but that union itself is not the same as the 'set' union of that set, the latter would be something like a container that containers the aggregate of all elements of elements of a set. No it is true that the entire arsenal is literally there, but this would correspond to having an aggregate of all sets, and this is not the same as a set of all sets, the later would be the container of that ...(see next comment) – Zuhair Jun 13 '18 at 09:52
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    aggregate. Now having an aggregate of all sets doesn't necessarily entail that there would be a container that contains it, and so you don't necessarily have a "set" of all sets, it is the the assumption that any aggregate must have a container that contains it that is the intuitive root of a lot of inconsistencies. Actually the main flawed naive assumption that would lead to inconsistencies in set theory is the confusion of a set as a mereological totality of all its elements. – Zuhair Jun 13 '18 at 09:54
  • These are very interesting comments though I would have to re-read them to understand them fully :-) Would you be interested in posting something along these lines as an answer, keeping in mind that mereology is not a household word for MSE users? @Zuhair – Mikhail Katz Jun 13 '18 at 09:56
  • Ok I would, just give me some time. – Zuhair Jun 13 '18 at 10:01
  • there are some annoying typos in my second comment, I wrote .. a container that containers... and what I mean is a container that contains. I wrote No it is true, and what I mean is : Now it is true. – Zuhair Jun 13 '18 at 10:05
  • I personally informally think of "sets" of ZF as "containers", the membership $\in$ relation of ZF as "is a container contained in", I personally think that this is just a part of the bigger picture which should involve "aggregates" of those containers and possibly interpret those aggregates as "classes" [not sets]. I'll explicitly mention this in the answer I'm going to post on this thread. – Zuhair Jun 13 '18 at 10:09
  • I thought a "standard model" of set theory was a transitive set $M$ such that $(M,\in)$ satisfies the axioms. Did I have that wrong, or is that outdated terminology? – bof Jan 08 '24 at 11:42
  • @bof, the title was a bit misleading, so I just changed it. The question itself explains the matter in detail. See related answer here: https://philosophy.stackexchange.com/a/107167/27522 – Mikhail Katz Jan 08 '24 at 14:50

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A basic misunderstanding of sets at the intuitive level is to think of them as totalities of their elements, you see this sometimes phrased as: sets are nothing beyond their elements; a set is its elements, etc... philosophically re-phrasing this intuitive account is to say a set is the totality (or whole) of all of its elements; and formally speaking, since Mereology is the discipline devoted to understanding Part-Whole relation this is phrased as: a set is the mereological sum (or fusion) of its elements, or sometimes a set is the heap (conglomerate\aggregate) of its elements. That matter had been shown to be false as early as Bertrand Russell's work on mathematical logic (see: Introduction to Mathematical philosophy): let me quote that:

"We cannot take classes in the pure extensional way as simply heaps or conglomerations. If we were to attempt to do that, we should find it impossible to understand how there can be such a class as the null-class, which has no members at all and cannot be regarded as a “heap”; we should also find it very hard to understand how it comes about that a class which has only one member is not identical with that one member. I do not mean to assert, or to deny, that there are such entities as “heaps.” As a mathematical logician, I am not called upon to have an opinion on this point. All that I am maintaining is that, if there are such things as heaps, we cannot identify them with the classes composed of their constituents."

Bertrand Russell, Intorduction to Mathematical Philsosphy, p:146-147

Further work in Mereology and set theory reveals that "sets" [as of ZFC] begs more Ontology, in other words a set must have at least a part of it that is disjoint (do not share a common part) from the heap of all of its elements, and it is not composed just of the material of its elements, the more you define sets the more you are Ontologically committed to newer entities having new material in them, I think this was first attributed to Stanisław Leśniewski.

In David Lewis's Parts of Classes, a nice work on relationship between set theory and Mereology, one can see where that excess material of a set comes from. In nutshell he thinks of the existence of a singleton partial function $Lb$ [the notation is mine] that sends aggregates of atoms [objects having no proper parts] to atoms, so the atom that an aggregate is sent to under that singleton function would serve as a "label" for that aggregate, then he defines class as "aggregate of labels", and define epsilon membership "$\in$" as:

$x \in y \iff \exists l [l=Lb(x) \wedge l \ P \ y]$,

where $P$ signify "is a part of",

Now, under that definition, it is easy to see that a class do have a part of it that is disjoint of the aggregate of all of its elements, this simply would be the fusion of all atoms in the class that are not parts of what is labeled by a label that is a part of that class, more simply stated: what is remained from a class after taking out all elements of its UNION from it. And since we are speaking of well-founded models then there would always be an excess material into a set over the sum material of its elements. Now Lewis then goes to define "set" as a class that has a label under the singleton function, and of course a proper class would be a class for which no label is assigned by that singleton function.

Now the head post is speaking about some naive form intuition about sets plus some Platonism, whereby each set is an entity in the abstracta, i.e. the abstract Platonic realm, and thinks of "set Union" as merely the "concatenation of such abstracta", and here "concatenation" is just another word for mereological aggregate, and this claim is intuitively false, as seen from above. To re-phrase Lewis's views in your terms I'd say that the set union would be the concatenation of all labels of the concatenated abstracta. The problem is that we are not sure that the arsenal of all such abstracta has a Label! There is no axiom that states that every aggregate of labels must have a label, actually this axioms lead straightforwards to Russell's paradox. So you can see that the concatenation intuition leads to existence of a "class" of all the concatenated abstracta but not of a set of all of them.

So "sets" are not mere extensions [classes would be!] they encounter something else which in Lewis's view would be understood as labels, so set theory is about labeling of extensions, so an extension which is potentially a plurality would be labeled by a singular entity, and we take extensions of those singular entities and then label them by the singular, and so on, Lewis views set theory as the hierarchical inter-play of the plural and the singular.

I personally like to intuitively view "sets" simply as containers, and set member as an atom inside a container at some moment of time. We can rephrase the membership of ZF as "is contained in" and objects in the domain of ZFC to be some kind of containers [whether abstract or concrete]. Now if we extend ZFC with classes, then I take those classes to correspond to mereological aggregates of containers, and so classes are nearest to the idea of extensions (or concatenations in your terms), I also would define class membership in a separate manner from set membership (which I view as containment-ship really), a member of a class is a container that is a part of that class, and also mereologically I'd stipulate all containers as mereological atoms, since we are not meant with the proper parts of a container, we are meant with its containment action! So there is excess material involved with thinking of sets here, because they are clearly not the aggregate of what they contain, they are the container that contains all and only atoms of that aggregate.

So again your concatenation intuition would translate into saying that there would be an aggregate of containers but this need not necessarily have a container that contain all of its atoms, so again you won't have a SET union, you'll have a "class" union. And so there is no contradiction with ZF. The contradiction would raise if you think that every aggregate G must have a container C, i.e. C contains each atom that is part of G and only those. formally this is:

$\forall G \exists C \forall x (x \text { is conained in } C \leftrightarrow atom(x) \wedge x \ P \ G)$

This would be an example of a wrong intuition that would lead to paradoxes.

I personally like the container\aggregate distinction for set\class dichotomy because it provides a very sharp demarcating envisionment. Here a set won't be confused for a class except for singleton classes [classes having only one container as a part of them] and even then they'd have a separate membership relations unless we have a singleton set in itself, i.e. a container that contains itself [to allow for this we'll need to re-define set membership as being an atom in a container in a container, instead of just simply being an atom in a container], which is not raised with well founded sets.

Anyhow I like the container theory because I also think it is more trivial than sets, it doesn't beg Extensionality or well-foundedness or even Choice, and so it fulfills the fragment of ZFC that is axiomatized by Union, Power, Separation, Collection and Infinity, and so it can serve as a foundation for almost the whole of mathematics, and of set theory itself.

The errors spoken about above are the same intuitive errors behind Mirimanoff [re-spelled as: there exists a 'set' of all well-founded sets] and Burali-Forti.

Zuhair
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    Honestly, the issue with this answer is the same I have with the question, and it is that they are not about ZFC platonists (naive or otherwise), but rather about a (very?) naive approach to the "intuitive" notion of set theory that precedes any modern formal thinking about it. In this regard, any mention of ZFC seems misleading. A ZFC platonist does not think that "a set is the totality (or whole) of all of its elements", or that a standard model entails the existence of a "set of all sets". – Andrés E. Caicedo Jun 16 '18 at 21:04
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    I answered to this (very?) naive approach that I saw in the head post. As far as its relation to modern Platonist conception of ZFC, then this something else, the OP was asking about intuitive errors that can haunt beginner students of set theory, and these might not be related to the common modern Platonist thinking of it at all, but they do cross the mind of beginners and they've been addressed by specialist logicians as I referenced in the answer. – Zuhair Jun 16 '18 at 21:19
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    It's a long answer, I know. But is it possible not to have 12 revisions? Perhaps don't edit every correction in, but rather keep a copy on your computer that you edit, and once you think it's actually done post an edit? Or even better, once you think it's done post it for the first time. No one is chasing you to post faster. – Asaf Karagila Jun 17 '18 at 08:19
  • Hi @Andrés, I think you may have misunderstood my question. Notice that I never mentioned any entity called "naive ZFC platonist" that you mentioned. I don't quite understand what this could possibly mean, since by the time a fellow has absorbed the ZFC axioms at any level of detail, such a fellow is not "naive" anymore. What I referring to is a rather common phenomenon of a naive platonist who is aware of the existence of the traditional set theoretic foundations commonly labeled ZFC. – Mikhail Katz Jun 17 '18 at 16:47
  • As you know, these were developed in the first quarter of the 20th century. The naive platonist assumes that they formalize his views concerning sets. I never spoke of "naive ZFC platonists" but only of "naive platonists". Once such a naive platonist starts examining the limits of his views he is likely to run into paradoxes or inconsistencies. @Andrés – Mikhail Katz Jun 17 '18 at 16:47
  • A Platonist can'tt see sets as collections of "things" due to Russell, but I'd argue this is different than seeing sets as determined by their members. Wouldn't a ZFC platonist see a set as determined by its members, since they believe extensionality is true, any sets which have the same members are equal? – C7X Sep 30 '22 at 23:02
  • @C7X, OK, let's say that a set be determined by its members. Now, how would a naive platonist account for the following puzzle: consider every set to be such a "member". Since they are all out there in some platonic sense, why don't these members determine a set? – Mikhail Katz Jan 09 '24 at 09:27
  • @MikhailKatz If I am correctly remembering my thoughts when writing my previous comment, I was reading "sets are determined by their members" as meaning "two sets with the same members are the same set", as opposed to "any aggregate of objects designated as members, forms a set". Under this first interpretation I was taking, a naive Platonist who accepts the axiom of extensionality would believe the axiom of extensionality as believing sets are determined by their members, and the puzzle of considering the aggregate of all sets would come up under discussion of the second interpretation. – C7X Jan 09 '24 at 23:12