I hope my question is not too naive. Sorry in advance if it is.
When exploring the literature on topological manifolds, I found basically two main classes of definitions regarding the local "similarity" to $\mathbb{R}^n$. In the first definition, every point has an open neighbourhood which is homeomorphic to an open subset of $\mathbb{R}^n$. In other definitions, this neighbourhood is homeomorphic to $\mathbb{R}^n$ (or equivalently to the unit disk).
I am wondering on what extent these two characterizations are equivalent. It seems to me that they are not. They would be if any open subset of $\mathbb{R}^n$ was homeomorphic to $\mathbb{R}^n$, which is not the case (see for instance this question).
Is there something I'm missing here (for instance: is the equivalence induced by other properties of the manifold?) or are these two characterizations actually different?