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Subset of a finite set is finite
I see this proof is presented using induction here http://www.proofwiki.org/wiki/Subset_of_Finite_Set_is_Finite
Why do we need to use induction and such a long proof, instead could not we use basic proof by contradiction and let there exist an infinite subset. Then since a set contains its subset it will be infinite too leading to a contradiction.
I am trying to learn proofs and analysis by selfstudy and I don't have professors to help me so can anyone explain me why this proof approach is preferred and is my proof wrong ?