Let $f$ be a Riemann-integrable function on $[0,1]$. Often, when working with Riemann sums, we wish to say that $$\begin{align} \lim_{N \to \infty} \sum_{k=1}^N \frac{1}{N} f(\frac{k}{N} ) = \int_0^1 f(x) \mathrm{d}x. \tag{1} \end{align}$$
This works as the definition of Riemann Integral suggests that the difference of the two values can be made arbitrarily small if we take a sufficiently fine partition. However, sometimes, we wish to apply this technique when $f$ is not Riemann-integrable. For instance $f = \log$, as in Limit using Riemann integral. These led me to the following question.
If $f$ is not Riemann-integrable, but $\int_0^1 f(x) \mathrm{d}x$ exists and is equal to $L$. Under what conditions is the right-hand side of equation 1 equal to $L$. Note that this is an improper integral. (It is not true for Lebesgue-integrable $f$, for instance the indicator functions of the rationals) Specifically,
- The linked question suggests monotonicity is sufficient. How can we prove this?
- Why aren't they equal in general? I feel that if $f$ is Riemann-integrable on $(0,1)$, this two expressions are equal. (By this I mean that it is integrable on all $[a,b] \subset (0,1)$) Is this the case?
- If they are not equal in general, what conditions are sufficient for equality?