Let $G,H,K$ be three groups. If $G\times H$ is isomorphic to $G\times K$, then is it true for $H\cong K$?
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Welcome to MSE. It will be more likely that you will get an answer if you show us that you made an effort. – José Carlos Santos May 08 '18 at 08:20
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Also this question has been asked many times before. – Derek Holt May 08 '18 at 08:22
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No, take
$$G=\mathbb{Z}\times\mathbb{Z}\times\cdots$$ $$H=\mathbb{Z}$$ $$K=1$$
Note that the thesis holds if $G$ is finite (Hirshon's theorem). See here.
Dietrich Burde
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freakish
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Out of curiosity, do you have a counterexample where all 3 groups are finite? – Aaron May 08 '18 at 08:27
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Let $A=\prod\limits_{n=1}^{\infty}G_n$, where $G_n=\mathbb{Z}$ for all $n$. And then we have $\mathbb{Z}\times A\cong\mathbb{Z}\times\mathbb{Z}\times A$. But $\mathbb{Z}\ncong\mathbb{Z}\times\mathbb{Z}$.
liwolf
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