I am learning the Riemann Surfaces and I have a question when I read the appendix A.1.5. of textbook A course Complex analysis and Riemann surfaces by W.Schlag.
One way to define the degree of the non-constant and analytic map $f$ between Riemann surfaces is that $$\deg(f) := \sum_{p\in f^{-1}(q)}(b_{p}(f)+1), $$ where $p$ is a branch point and $(b_{p}(f)$ barnch numbers.
And the other notion of the degree from topology,
Let $f: M \to N$ be a smooth map and $f^{*}: H^{n}(N) \to H^{n}(M)$ the induced map defined via the pullback. There exists a real number denoted by $\deg(f)$ s.t. $$ \int_{M} f^{*}(\omega)=\deg(f) \int_{N} \omega,\ \forall \omega \in H^{n}(N).$$
For the Riemann surfaces $n=2$, hence the definition of the degree is that $$\int_{M} f^{*}(d\sigma)=\deg(f) \int_{N} d\sigma,\ \forall d\sigma \in H^{2}(N).$$
$\textbf{My question}$ is that why it is easy to verify that for any $\textbf{regular}$ value $q\in N$, which means that $Df(p): T_{p}M \to T_{p} N$ is invertible for every $p$ with $f(p)=q$, $$\deg(f)= \sum_{p\in f^{-1}(q)} Ind(f;p),$$ where $Ind(f;p)=\pm 1$ depending on whether $Df(p)$ preserves or reverses the orientation.