So, as of recently, I've become interested in topology and, in trying to find a reasonable generalization of a topology, have stumbled across lattices. I've found that the join and meet operations of subsets $A \subset X$ can be neatly expressed as the supremum and infimum operations of elements of the lattice $V=\mathcal{P}(X)$, respectively.
Applying this to a topology $\mathcal{T}$on a space $X$, we can see that meet and join are well-defined on $\mathcal{T}$, and hence $\mathcal{T}$ itself becomes a lattice.
So far so understandable, but I got terribly confused when I read about complete lattices. Let $(V, \wedge, \vee)$ be a lattice. $V$ is said to be complete if and only if $\forall U \subset V \, \exists \, sup(U), \, inf(U) \in V$. In particular, it is enough to require the existence of one of these two, because $sup(U) = inf \lbrace x \in V: (\forall y \in U: x \leq y)\rbrace$.
My thought was this: Since topologies generalize so nicely to lattices, and every set of open subsets of $X$ has a supremum by the definition of topology, what should stop me from defining the infimum for any (not just a finite) set of open subsets of $X$ using the method above? $\bigcap_{j \in J} W_j = \bigcup\lbrace U \subset X \text{ open}, \forall j \in J: U \subset V_j \rbrace$
The worst that can happen is that there is no element in that set, hence the union is empty. But even in that case, by the definition of topology, the empty set is open in $X$, which makes me wonder why infinite intersections of open subsets are generally not defined to be open. Are they just not relevant? In "most of the cases", the intersection is going to be empty anyway. Or have I maybe misunderstood something about the definition of lattices? I'd be grateful if somebody took the time to explain this to me.