Just wanted someone to check me to see if this is a valid proof. I've seen other proofs, but I can't use Cauchy condensation, or integral test as we haven't learned it yet. I have ratio test and comparison test at my disposal.
Show how that $\displaystyle\sum_{n=2}^\infty\frac1{n\log n}$ diverges.
$n>0$, so for all $n$, $0<(n \log n)^{-1}$. By $\Bbb Q$ dense in $\Bbb R$, for all $n$ there exists a $q$ such that
$$0<q<\frac1{n\log n}<\frac1{2\log2}$$
By the Archimedean property, there exits an $m$ such that $mq>(2\log2)^{-1}$. Therefore,
$$0<\frac1{2m\log2}<q<\frac1{n\log n}<\frac1{2\log2}$$
As $\sum 1/m$ diverges as it is the tail harmonic series, $1/(n\log n)$ diverges.
I'm a bit unsure of this, but I have no idea how else to show it using the tools I have.